Sunday, November 8, 2015

Turin Stars Etc










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 Also highly recommended is the The Orthodox New Testament published by Holy Apostles Convent and Dormition Skete.

Review of the Orthodox Study Bible
by Priest Seraphim Johnson

http://orthodoxinfo.com/phronema/review_osb2.aspx


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http://www.amazon.com/dp/1938067347/ref=wl_it_dp_o_pC_nS_ttl?_encoding=UTF8&colid=3MLIJU48MFY6B&coliid=I1EXJOZU03Q98T


http://www.washingtontimes.com/news/2014/jan/16/kellner-did-a-prominent-rabbi-find-jesus-and-does-/

http://www.carlgallups.com/rabbi/

http://www.yeshuahamashiach.org/Kaduri_names_Messiah.htm


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I have the Orthodox New Testament which I enjoy quite a bit. But today as I was researching Holy Apostles Convent & Dormition Skete, the publishers of this bible, I noticed that they refer to themselves as "the Genuine Greek Orthodox Church." 

Are they considered schismatic? Are they out of communion with the Orthodox Church? I notice on their web site that they have an article called, "The Apostasy of Orthodoxy in the 20th century." 


http://www.byzcath.org/forums/ubbthreads.php/topics/305022/Are%20Holy%20Apostles%20Convent%20&%20Do

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http://www.stnectariospress.com/about-us/


http://www.stnectariospress.com/brands/Holy-Apostles-Convent.html


http://www.stnectariospress.com/brands/Holy-Apostles-Convent.html

https://voxstefani.wordpress.com/2008/12/18/on-englishing-the-bible-of-the-orthodox-church-an-update/


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http://orthodoxwiki.org/Holy_Apostles_Convent_(Buena_Vista,_Colorado)


_________________

http://holyapostlesconvent.org:8081/hacwebstore/index.zul

http://holyapostlesconvent.org:8081/hacwebstore/searchresults.zul?categoryID=2


________________

http://www.monachos.net/conversation/topic/2287-a-critical-review-of-the-orthodox-new-testament/

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=MlIWH51K0yk

________________

https://voxstefani.wordpress.com/2007/08/25/on-translating-the-churchs-and-no-other-bible/

https://voxstefani.wordpress.com/2008/04/16/prolegomenon-to-a-bible-review-on-the-necessity-of-seriously-and-critically-engaging-matters-of-text-and-translation/

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http://www.orthodoxlogos.com/search_resadvance.php?lng=eng&type=catalog&search_text=HOLY%20APOSTLES%20CONVENT&rdgroup1=eng&public=1&rdgroup2=10000&author=1

http://www.orthodoxchristianity.net/forum/index.php?topic=27779.0

http://www.gocamerica.org/directory.shtml

https://voxstefani.wordpress.com/2008/12/18/on-englishing-the-bible-of-the-orthodox-church-an-update/



https://voxstefani.wordpress.com/2008/12/18/on-englishing-the-bible-of-the-orthodox-church-an-update/


On Englishing the Bible of the Orthodox Church


A year ago I wrote about two noteworthy projects whose goal is to translate into English the Bible of the Orthodox Church: Michael Asser’s KJV-LXX Psalter and Fr Laurent Cleenewerck’s Greek / Eastern Orthodox Bible. 

Last April I was pleased to announce the long-awaited publication of Mr Asser’s excellent Psalter in a handsome and sturdy edition designed to withstand many years of liturgical and devotional use.

 Now I am equally pleased to report that a corrected edition of the EOB’s New Testament has been released, and is available for download (and purchase) in anticipation of the publication of the final edition in November 2009; 

The remarkable importance of the upcoming publication of the EOB can hardly be overstated: this is, quite simply, the very first time in which the entire text of the Church’s Bible will appear in English translation. As I noted in my earlier post, the EOB New Testament
” [….] is laudably based on the 1904 Patriarchal Greek text, which is, for all practical purposes, the only authoritative Orthodox edition of the ecclesiastical text of the New Testament. Divergences from the modern critical text of the New Testament (NA/UBS) are marked by footnotes, as are textual variants from patristic sources […] [T]he EOB Old Testament will be a (one hopes extensive) revision of Brenton’s translation of the Septuagint [….].”

Needless to say, this is an enormous improvement upon other editions currently available. 

the Orthodox Study Bible simply prints the text of the NKJV New Testament unchanged, and the notion that its Old Testament is an actual translation of the Septuagint is, at best, highly debatable. It is not, then, the Church’s Bible strictly speaking. 

On the other hand, the 2-volume Orthodox New Testament published by Holy Apostles’ Convent, though based on the 1904 Patriarchal New Testament, and invaluable though it is on account of its superb system of patristic annotations, fails to be actually English: its “translation” of the Biblical text is disastrous (not to say ludicrous), constantly given as it is to simple transliteration, or else to fallacious overinterpretation of the worst kind. And, in any event, it is a translation of the New Testament alone. 

So again, the EOB will be the very first English translation of the Bible of the Orthodox Church, and from the look of it, a fine one indeed.

Now, surely on account of the great benefit that is to be visited upon us all, you are wondering if there is anything you can do to bring this worthy project to fruition in a timely fashion. And as a matter of fact, there is: Fr Laurent is looking for proofreaders that will help him comb through the entire translation of the Old and New Testaments before the final release in late 2009. If you have the time and the competencies to engage in this task, please get in touch with Fr Laurent to offer your assistance.


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EOB  website

http://www.orthodox-church.info/eob/

http://www.orthodox-church.info/eob/contributors.asp


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Rabbi Yitzhak Kaduri 
Reveals 
Yeshua is Messiah
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=k0DTT3u2JZ8

Yitzhak Kaduri
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yitzhak_Kaduri


The Rabbi, the Note and the Messiah
http://www.israeltoday.co.il/NewsItem/tabid/178/nid/23877/Default.aspx

Jesus as Messiah
https://www.breakingisraelnews.com/43554/rabbi-kaduri-jesus-as-messiah-claim-discredited-as-false-jewish-world/#SrW3uko20UIpL0pd.97

Yehoshua, Yeshua (Jesus)
http://rabbikaduri.blogspot.com


Israeli Jew  Rabbi's son accepts Yeshua (Jesus) the Messiah
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=D_NTqPodYEA

Israeli Jew baptized 
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=FCFsYdmf8uM

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Mark   Egypt  Gospel  First Century

http://www.cnn.com/2015/01/21/living/gospel-mummy-mask/

http://www.smithsonianmag.com/smart-news/papyrus-found-mummy-mask-may-be-oldest-known-copy-gospel-180953962/?no-ist

http://www.livescience.com/49489-oldest-known-gospel-mummy-mask.html



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https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Radiocarbon_14_dating_of_the_Shroud_of_Turin

Radiocarbon 14 dating of the Shroud of Turin

http://news.discovery.com/history/archaeology/new-method-could-revolutionize-dating-of-turin-shroud.htm

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http://www.chabad.org/library/article_cdo/aid/562077/jewish/What-Is-Shemittah.htm


What Is Shemittah?
The Sabbatical Year basics: absolution of loans, desisting from all field work, and the spiritual objective of all the above.

As soon as the Jews settled in the Holy Land,
they began to count and observe seven-year cycles. 
Every cycle would culminate in a Sabbatical year,
known as Shemittah,
literally: “to release.”

The year following the destruction of the second Holy Temple was the first year of a seven-year Sabbatical cycle. 

In the Jewish calendar, counting from Creation, this was the year 3829, 68–69 CE on the secular calendar. 

By counting sevens from then, we see that the next Shemittah year will be the year 5775 after Creation, which runs from Sept. 25, 2014, through Sept. 13, 2015.

___________

37/36 BCE Herod conquers Jerusalem on 10 Tishri (Day of Atonement) just after end of Sabbatical year 37/36 BCE.[10]


41/42 CE Recital of Deuteronomy 7:15 by Agrippa I in a post-Sabbatical year, making the Sabbatical year 41/42.[11]


69/70 CE Destruction of Jerusalem in the latter part (motsae, “going-out”) of the Sabbatical year 69/70.[12]

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_Sabbatical_Years


41  1
40  2
39  3
38  4
37  5
36  6
35  7
34
33



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Natural Factors Affecting the Apparent
Radiocarbon Age of Textiles

By Mario Moroni, Italy and
Remi van Haelst, Belgium

Copyright 1997

https://www.shroud.com/vanhelst.htm




http://www.innoval.com/C14/

Based on . . .
Chemistry Today (vol 26 n4/Jul-Aug 2008), "Discrepancies in the radiocarbon dating area of the Turin shroud,"
Los Alamos National Laboratory findings (Ohio State Shroud of Turin Conference report (August 2008),
Thermochimica Acta (vol 425 2005) and
 findings of Georgia Institute of Technology chemist John L. Brown,

. . . it can be stated that the 1988 carbon 14 dating of the Shroud of Turin is invalid.




http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0305440396900096

Effects of fires and biofractionation of carbon isotopes on results of radiocarbon dating of old textiles: the Shroud of Turin

Dmitri Kouznetsov, Andrey Ivanov, Pavel Veletsky
E. A. Sedov Biopolymer Research Laboratories, Inc. 4/9 Grafski Pereulok, Moscow, 129626, Russia
Received 16 August 1994, Accepted 27 October 1994, Available online 22 April 2002




http://shroud2000.com/CarbonDatingNews.html

The Story Behind
The Shroud of Turin
And the Carbon Dating Debacle


http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/science/nature/4210369.stm

Turin shroud 'older than thought'
 Shroud of Turin, Nasa

Tests in 1988 concluded the cloth was a medieval "hoax"
The Shroud of Turin is much older than suggested by radiocarbon dating carried out in the 1980s, according to a new study in a peer-reviewed journal.
A research paper published in Thermochimica Acta suggests the shroud is between 1,300 and 3,000 years old.




The Shroud of Turin - Evidence it is authentic

Below is a summary of scientific and historical evidence supporting the authenticity of the Shroud of Turin as the ancient burial cloth of the historical Jesus of Nazareth.

by J. Michael Fischer, adapted from the original article by John C. Iannone

http://www.newgeology.us/presentation24.html


The Shroud of Turin

http://www.public.iastate.edu/~rhetoric/105H17/ahersey/cof.html


Effects of neutron irradiation on linen fibres
and consequences for a radiocarbon dating

http://www.ohioshroudconference.com/papers/p03.pdf

Therefore, if an irradiation had happened, the result would explain the anomalous
data obtained in the analyses of the Shroud made in 1998.7




http://www.bbc.com/news/magazine-33164668

How did the Turin Shroud get its image?


http://pubs.acs.org/doi/abs/10.1021/bk-1996-0625.ch018

Previous Chapter Next Chapter Table of Contents
A Re-evaluation of the Radiocarbon Date of the Shroud of Turin Based on Biofractionation of Carbon Isotopes and a Fire-Simulating Model

D. A. Kouznetsov, , A. A. Ivanov, and , P. R. Veletsky
E. A. Sedov Biopolymer Research Laboratories, Inc., 4/9 Grafski Pereulok, Moscow 129626, Russia
Archaeological Chemistry
Chapter 18, pp 229–247
Chapter DOI: 10.1021/bk-1996-0625.ch018
ACS Symposium Series, Vol. 625
ISBN13: 9780841233959eISBN: 9780841215740
Publication Date (Print): July 23, 2009
Copyright © 1996 American Chemical Society
Peer Reviewed Book Chapter



New Method Could Revolutionize Dating of Turin Shroud

http://news.discovery.com/history/archaeology/new-method-could-revolutionize-dating-of-turin-shroud.htm


The Shroud of Turin

http://www.historian.net/shroud.htm


Carbon 14 Dating On Shroud of Turin Were Botched 2008
POSTED BY DAN ⋅ 2012


https://shroudstory.wordpress.com/2012/02/27/carbon-14-dating-on-shroud-of-turin-were-botched-2008/


Shroud News

http://theshroudofturin.blogspot.com/2008/04/shroud-news-march-2008.html


A DOZEN YEARS OF SHROUD SCIENCE GROUP
Giulio Fanti

https://www.shroud.com/pdfs/stlfanti2.pdf


Library  References

https://www.shroud.com/library.htm



Three Italian statisticians and a professor from London are questioning the 1988 radiocarbon testing which concluded the famous Shroud of Turin actually dated to medieval times and could not have been the burial cloth of Jesus.  Writing in the April 7 edition of the magazine of the Italian Statistical Society, the authors said there were huge inconsistencies in the results of the radiocarbon testing.  Subsequent, more thorough testing, they said, failed to establish a level of statistical significance that could certify the shroud as a medieval creation.

http://lsiblog.blogspot.com/2010/04/shroud-of-turin-could-be-genuine.html



Giulio Fanti

http://shroudstory.com/?s=A+Robust+statistical+analysis


– RIANI M., FANTI G., CROSILLA F., ATKINSONS A., "Statistica robusta e radiodatazione della Sindone" SIS Magazine http://www.sis-statistica.it/magazine/spip.php?article177 


Giulio Fanti

http://shroudstory.com/2013/03/27/giulio-fanti-the-image-of-a-man-who-lived-between-280-bc-and-220-ad/

The Holy Shroud shows a not reproducible double image of a man who lived from 280 BC and the year 220 AD (rounded to the nearest tens), period compatible with the documented presence of Jesus in Palestine.

The carbon 14 dating performed in 1988 is not statistically reliable.

Mineralogical investigations on dusts vacuumed from the Shroud, show the coincidence in dozens of items with those made of dust picked up in Jerusalem and under the Holy Sepulchre.

DNA studies on the same samples show an exposition of the Shroud to the middle East region.


These are the sensational results reported in an Italian book entitled "IL MISTERO DELLA SINDONE – Le sorprendenti scoperte scientifiche sull’enigma del telo di Gesù (THE MYSTERY OF THE SHROUD – The amazing scientific discoveries on the enigma of the Jesus’ cloth) edited by Rizzoli and written by Giulio Fanti and Saverio Gaeta.

The studies led by Professor Giulio Fanti have been performed by the Universities of Padua, Bologna, Modena, Udine, Parma and London.


London School of Economics

http://www.acheiropoietos.info/proceedings/RianiWeb.pdf

http://www.acheiropoietos.info/proceedings/RianiWeb.pdf

http://www.acheiropoietos.info/proceedings/RianiWeb.pdf


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For New Testament  King James Version Stays

canNot accept an old testament version that use Hebrew Masoretic

Pre-Modern era versions are better

rheims douay

http://exhibits.lib.byu.edu/kingjamesbible//kjb-impact.php/

Abraham Lincoln. Gettysburg Address. In: Address of Hon. Edward Everett, at the consecration of the National Cemetery at Gettysburg, 19th November, 1863..
Boston: Little, Brown, 1864.
Lincoln was a frequent reader of the King James Bible and had been since childhood. He heard the text of the Bible at home, at church meetings, and even at school. He told the story of attending a "log schoolhouse in Indiana where . . . all our reading was done from the Bible. We stood in a long line and read in turn from it." Lincoln's speeches, including the Gettysburg Address, contain echoes of the King James Bible, and many critics believe that Lincoln's appropriation of biblical language is why his oratory is so stirring and vivid to audiences both today and in his own time.

http://www.libertylawsite.org/2013/11/19/the-sacred-sounds-of-lincolns-gettysburg-address/


http://www.hrc.utexas.edu/exhibitions/2012/kingjamesbible/



_________________________________

http://www.aloha.net/~mikesch/douay.htm

Genesis
3:15

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=genesis+3&version=NABRE;DRA

NAB RE

I will put enmity between you and the woman,
    and between your offspring and hers;
They will strike at your head,
    while you strike at their heel.

> This is Unacceptable - NAB RE

Douay-Rheims 

 I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.

> This is Unacceptable - Douay-Rheims 

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=genesis+3&version=NABRE;DRA


http://www.ellopos.net/elpenor/physis/septuagint-genesis/3.asp?pg=2

Greek Septuagint

And I will put enmity between thee and the woman and between thy seed and her seed, he shall watch against thy head, and thou shalt watch against his heel. 

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=genesis+3&version=KJV;NKJV

KJV

And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

NKJV
And I will put enmity
Between you and the woman,
And between your seed and her Seed;
He shall bruise your head,
And you shall bruise His heel.”


http://www.kjvtoday.com/home/reliable-hebrew-text

http://webstersdictionary1828.com/Dictionary/watch

________________________________

http://www.ecclesia.org/truth/septuagint.html

Septuagint LXX   vs King Jame Old Testament

- Hebrew Masoretic is Unacceptable  

This a great article

http://www.ecclesia.org/truth/septuagint.html

History of the Septuagint


Here is a little background on the Septuagint. This is from the Preface and Introduction to the Septuagint itself written by Sir Lancelot C.L. Brenton in 1851:



"The Septuagint (from the Latin septuaginta, meaning "seventy," and frequently referred to by the roman numerals LXX) is the Greek translation of the Old Testament. The name derives from the tradition that it was made by seventy (or seventy-two) Jewish scholars at Alexandria, Egypt during the reign of Ptolemy Philadelphus (285-247 B.C.)."The earliest version of the Old Testament Scriptures which is extant, or of which we possess any certain knowledge, is the translation executed at Alexandria in the third century before the Christian era.
"The Septuagint version having been current for about three centuries before the time when the books of the New Testament were written, it is not surprising that the Apostles should have used it more often than not in making citations from the Old Testament. They used it as an honestly made version in pretty general use at the time when they wrote. They did not on every occasion give an authoritative translation of each passage de nova [which means anew], but they used what was already familiar to the ears of converted Hellenists, when it was sufficiently accurate to suit the matter in hand. In fact, they used it as did their contemporary Jewish writers, Philo and Josephus, but not, however, with the blind implicitness of the former.

"The veneration with which the Jews had treated this version [the Septuagint] (as is shown in the case of Philo and Josephus) [because Philo and Josephus quoted the Septuagint], gave place to a very contrary feeling when they [the Jews] found how it could be used against them in argument: hence they decreed the version, and sought to deprive it of all authority. [Previous to this, it was the Word of God as they were concerned. But as soon as the early church started using it against them and pointing out the depravity of Judaism, they tried to discredit the Septuagint]. As the Gentile Christians were generally unacquainted with Hebrew, they were unable to meet the Jews on the ground which they now took; and as the Gentile Christians…fully embraced…its authority and inspiration, they necessarily regarded the denial on the part of the Jews of its accuracy, as little less than blasphemy, and as proof of their blindness."

The Jews upheld the Septuagint very strongly for the first 300 years as the Word of God, but when the Christians took a hold of it, then the Jews rejected it. Then the Jews started rewriting the Septuagint in the 2nd and 3rd centuries to suit their purposes. They were "Making the word of God of none effect through [their] tradition " (Mark 7:13).

The following is from the introduction of the book called "Grammar of the Septuagint Greek" by Connie Bearer and Stock, written in 1905:



"The work of Origen might enlighten the learned but it did not effect the unique position held in the church by the Septuagint ever since it was taken over by the Hellenistic Jews. We are familiar with the constant appeal made by the writers of the New Testament to quote scripture, an appeal couched in such words as "it is written" or "as the scripture saith." In the great majority of cases, the scripture thus appealed to is undoubtedly the Septuagint. Seldom, if ever, is it the Hebrew original. We have seen how, even before the Christian era, the Septuagint had acquired for itself the position of an inspired book. Some four centuries after that era, Augustine remarks that the Greek speaking Christians, for the most part, did not even know that there was any other Word of God than the Septuagint.
"So, when other nations became converted to Christianity and wanted the scriptures in their own languages, it was almost always the Septuagint which formed the basis of the translation. This was so in the case of the early Latin version, which was in use before the Vulgate, and it was so also in the case of the translations made in Coptic, Ethiopic, Armenian, Georgian, Gothic, and other languages. The only exception to the rule is the first Syriac version, which was made direct from the Hebrew. This Syriac version, by the way, when translated into English, lines up harmoniously with the Septuagint when translated into English. When, at the close of the forth century, Jerome had recourse to the Hebrew original and revised it in the acceptable Latin text, the authority of the Septuagint stood in the way of the immediate acceptance of his work. The churches of Christ, said Augustine, do not think that anyone is to be preferred to the authority of so many men chosen out of the high priest Eliasar for the accomplishment of so great a work."

For those who favor the King James, the King James Bible, printed in 1810, called the "Potters Standard Edition", happens to talk about the Septuagint. Here is what that King James Bible said.



"The most remarkable translation of the Old Testament into Greek is called the Septuagint, which, if the opinion of some eminent writers is to be credited, was made in the reign of Ptolemy Philadelphus, about 270 years before the Christian era. At any rate, it is undoubtedly the most ancient that is now extant. The five books of Moses were translated first in the time of Ptolemy Philadelphus, King of Egypt, and others were added until the whole Old Testament was finished, and the version dates about 270 years before the birth of Christ. The transcendent value of this version may be seen from the extensive usage that it had attained in Jewish synagogues, from the fact that our blessed Lord and the apostles habitually quoted from it, and also from the fact that it helped to determine the state of the Hebrew text at the time when the version was made. Besides, it establishes, beyond all doubt, the point that our Lord and his inspired apostles recognized the duty of rendering the Word into the vulgar tongue of all people so that all men might, in their own speech, hear the wonderful things of the Lord. All the authors of the New Testament appear to have written in the Greek language. That this tongue was already familiar to them as a vehicle to express God's inspired Word is evident from their frequent use of the Greek translation, the Septuagint, in quoting the Old Testament and from the remarkable accordance of their style with the style of that ancient and precious version."

The reason the Septuagint came about is because in Alexandria, Alexander the Great had come through and conquered many of those nations, and Greek became the predominant language. So they took the original Law, and translated it into Greek for those Jews that no longer spoke Hebrew, and also to convert many of the Greeks over to Judaism. They translated the original into the Greek at approximately 285 BC. Basically, you see many of the quotes from the New Testament and they're direct quotes from the Septuagint, you don't find the same terminology in the original Hebrew.

This is one of the reasons the Septuagint has been buried. A Maxim of Law states, "the law is sometimes hid but it never dies". Through my studies, I thought the Law was buried in 1861, but I'm finding out it goes much farther than that. And the Septuagint is part of the burying of that Law so we do not have it in out hands to use it against the powers that be, and they are the ones who have hidden it, so that they can retain control for commercial and power purposes. The maxims of Law have their roots in the Law of God, and are quoted verbatim from the Septuagint, but they're hiding both of them from the public. But when you use them against them, it stops them cold. Especially when you say, just like Jesus did, "It is written in the word of God", and then turning around on them and using a maxim and saying, "and is it not written in your law that…" and nailing them with their own public records and nailing them airtight with the words out of their own mouth. So they can't escape when you hit them with the Word of God and with their own law that comes from the Word of God, which proves that they know the Word of God is true.



Proponent One
Our first Proponent covered is from the Introduction to The Septuagint Bible, as translated into the English language by Charles Thomson in 1808, which gives us much insight into some previously unpublicized history and facts concerning the Hebrew Masoretic and Greek Septuagint texts of the Old Testament. Some of its more important points read as follows:
"By the end of the first century of the Christian era—the first of several to be filled with fierce religious controversies—the official Hebrew biblical text had already become considerably altered from what it was in the third, or for that matter in the second or first centuries preceding the Christian era,—thus furnishing grist for the controversial mill, by enabling post-Christian Jewish proponents to answer any opponents who might quote from the Septuagint Bible text, by saying that it was "not the same" as the Hebrew. Of course it was not, for the Hebrew text had changed during the first century of the Christian era, as even a cursory examination of the older and later texts will prove. To cite one of the striking instances of such alterations, "the angels of God" in the ancient Septuagint text of Deuteronomy 32:8 became "the children of Israel" in the post-christian Hebrew version. As Swete after a survey of the evidence concludes:
"At some time between the age of the LXX and that of Aquila (ca. 125A.D.) a thorough revision of the Hebrew Bible must have taken place, probably under official direction; and the evidence seems to point to the Rabbinical school which had its center in Jamnia in the years that followed the fall of Jerusalem as the source from which this revision proceeded. Among the Rabbis of Jamnia were Eleazar, Joshua, and Akiba, the reputed teachers of Aquila." H. B. Swete, An Introduction to the Old Testament in Greek, op. cit., p.320
The changes that appeared in post-Christian times were literally followed thereafter, particularly after being formally crystallized by the 7th century Hebrew "traditionalists" (who were, however, often following a post-Christian tradition) called the Masoretes, from masorah, "tradition." It is little argument to say that the greatest Messianic prophecies remained unaltered in the 100A.D. Hebrew text which has come down to us as the present masoretic text; for to orthodox Jewry, especially in more ancient times, the Messiah was still to come, for whom those prophetic texts served very well. Hence, there existed no doctrinal need for such alteration in the least. Secondly, there was a definite, and often strongly provoked controversial need for some alterations, consequential or not, which would enable it to be said that the ancient Septuagint translation, so widely used in the Hellenistic world, was "not the same" as the "Hebrew" text.
The oldest Hebrew text in existence in the third century B.C. had been used by the early Septuagint translators; but it is unfortunate that in post-Christian times all Hebrew manuscripts containing the older text increasingly found their way into the genizah, the cemetery near every large ancient synagogue for abandoned scrolls of the Torah and other sacred writings. This fact modern discoveries in the old Cairo synagogue have further substantiated. The oldest literary evidence of the Bible—the Septuagint vellum manuscripts, the Samaritan Pentateuch, and the biblical papyrus scrolls—all tend to agree with each other more than with the present Hebrew text, which dates no earlier than 100 years after the Christian era had begun. Unfortunately, late text was relied upon by both Origen and St. Jerome as the "original" Hebrew in their work of redaction and translation, and the same dependence was used by Luther and the King James committee. Five out of the six columns in Origen's comparative Hexapla represent the 100A.D. text, and he even tried to adapt the sixth or Septuagint column to it in a natural desire to approximate what he believed to be the Hebrew original. Interestingly enough, in St. Jerome's version, as finally accepted in the Vulgate Bible, we still find the Septuagint version of the Psalms, as well as several books from the older version."


Proponent Two
Our second Proponent covered is from Potter's Standard Bible, published in 1871, containing A Concise Treatise on the Evidences of the Genuineness, Authenticity, Inspiration, Preservation, and Value of the Word of God. This particular Bible was "Translated out of the Original Languages." In other words, its Old Testament was translated from the Masoretic Hebrew. But in its opening Treatise, its author, Alfred Nevin, makes no mention of the Masoretes and their treatment of the original Hebrew texts. But he does make several very telling statements concerning the Septuagint and other translations of the Word of God, as follows:
"Allusion has been made to the Septuagint, by far the most famous and valuable of all the old versions of the entire Jewish Scriptures. From the time of Alexander the Great numerous colonies of Jews had settled in Egypt, and as they lost the use of the Hebrew tongue the necessity became urgent that the Scriptures should be rendered into Greek for their benefit. Accordingly, the Septuagint (i.e., seventy) was prepared by different authors, and it was so called because seventy, or rather seventy-two, elders of the Sanhedrim at Alexandria are believed to have examined and approved of the work. The five books of Moses were translated first in the time of Ptolemy Philadelphus, king of Egypt, and others were added until the whole Old Testament was finished, and the version dates about two hundred and eighty years before the birth of Christ. The transcendent value of this version may be seen from the extensive usage that it obtained in Jewish synagogues, from the fact that our blessed Lord and the Apostles habitually quoted from it, and also from the fact that it helps to determine the state of the Hebrew text at the time that the version was made. Besides, it establishes beyond all doubt the point that our Lord and His inspired Apostles recognized the duty of rendering the Word into the vulgar tongues of all people, so that all men might in their own speech hear the wonderful things of the Lord.
The New Testament was originally written in Greek; and no sooner was the Gospel spread through the nations than it was found necessary to translate the inspired writings for each into its proper tongue. Some translations of the Old Testament, different from the Septuagint, were made into Greek from 128 to 200A.D. It is generally believed that the church at Antioch was favoured with a Syrian translation of the Bible as early as the year 100. The Ethiopians of Abbysinia have a version of the Bible, which they ascribe to Frumentius, of the fourth century. Chrysostom, who lived in the end of the fourth, and Theodoret, who lived in the middle of the fifth century, both inform us that they had the Syrian, Indian, Persian, Armenian, Ethiopic, and Scythian versions. The ancient Egyptians had the Scriptures translated into their language. The Georgians have a version in their ancient language. The most ancient German translation is supposed to have been made by Ulphilas, A.D. 360. The Old Testament of all these translations, except the Syrian, is taken from the Septuagint, and not from the Hebrew text."


Masoretic Hebrew



"The English names of the Hebrew letters are written with much less uniformity than those of the Greek because there has been more dispute respecting their powers. This is directly contrary to what one would have expected. Since the Hebrew names are words originally significant of other things in the letters and the Greek are not. The original pronunciation of both languages is admitted to be lost." The Grammar of English Grammar, 9th Edition, 1865.
So, if anybody runs around and says you have to pronounce a particular name a certain way (Yahweh, Jehovah, etc), where did he find this out? You don't get pronunciation from reading a book, you get pronunciation from other people telling you, or hearing the sound of it being pronounced. For example, when you read the Septuagint, you have the Greek sitting in front of you, but you don't know how to pronounce it, and it really doesn't matter. What is important is the spirit behind the Word. When you look at the King James and see the sentence structure, syntax, and everything else all backwards, then you pick up the Septuagint, you know that somewhere along the line something was inverted or flipped over. Well, for what purpose?

When you look at 2 Timothy 2:15 and it tells you to be diligent, go ahead and look at the original Greek. It doesn't matter what the pronunciation is. What you're after is, "What does the word mean? What is the spirit behind the word? What is the power in the word?" To know the law is not to know the words, to know the law is the power IN the words. And that is the character of a sound mind. That was the character that Christ evidenced to us every step of his walk here with us. And you cannot possibly get a better rendition of what the Law is than what the Septuagint has written on its sheets of paper.

The King James' Old Testament is translated from the Masoretic Hebrew, not the original Hebrew. By the time the King James came around, the original Hebrew had been lost. What the Masorites did, between the 8th and 10th centuries, was they took the liberty within themselves to add vowel signs to the original Hebrew Alphabet. The original Hebrew alphabet had only 22 letters and had no vowels. The Hebrew alphabet is different from all other alphabets in this regard. For example, the English alphabet must take letters and put them into groups and call them words, but in Hebrew, the letters themselves are words.


"The names of the 22 letters in Hebrew are without dispute proper words. For they are not only significant of the letters of names but have, in general, if not in every instance, some other meaning in that language. Thus, the mysterious ciphers which the English reader meets with and wonders over as he reads the 119th Psalm may be resolved according to some of the Hebrew grammar as follows." The Grammar of English Grammar, 9th Edition, 1865.
Then this book lists the various letters. For example, the letter ALEPH. When the 119th Psalm opens up, the very first letter you run into is ALEPH. It means "an ox or a leader". It is the first letter of their alphabet, (and also means the number one). The original Hebrew alphabet is the only alphabet that has this characteristic peculiar to it; there are no other alphabets that have this peculiar characteristic. He lists the other 21 letters also, but it will get involved so I will just mention a few more.
BETH is the next letter, and it means "house" (and also means the number two). GIMEL, the third letter, refers to a camel (and also means the number three). It's obvious that we get our word "camel" from "GIMEL". So, you're a sojourner, your house is moving, and somebody is the leader, and that's Christ! DALETH, or "D" as we would call it, means "a door"! And who's the door? That would be Christ (John 10:7,9). DALETH also means the number four. This is all the subject matter the 119th Psalm concerns itself with, the original Hebrew alphabet. That's why it's the longest chapter in the entire scriptures!
Now, if I start taking liberties within myself and say, "Gee, there aren't any vowels in this alphabet. Why don't I start adding these little points in there and I'll re-create something here." What have I now done to a language that was perfect at its conception? We aren't supposed to be tampering with the Word of God. We are not to take away or add to God's Word (Deuteronomy 4:2; 12:32, Proverbs 30:6, Jeremiah 26:2, Revelation 22:18-19). But this is what the Masorites did.
This is the reason why the New Testament quotations of the Old Testament vary so much. because the writers of the New Testament quoted from the Septuagint, not the Masoretic Hebrew text!


"...the writers of the New Testament seem often to differ from those of the Old, because they appear uniformly to quote from some copy of the Septuagint version; and most of their quotations agree verbally, and often even literally, with one or other of the copies of that version which subsist to the present day." Clarke's Commentaries, The New Testament, Volume 5A, page 48.


Verse Comparisons

In this study, we will be comparing the Septuagint to the King James Bible. However, almost every bible in existence uses the Masoretic Hebrew for its Old Testament translation. Therefore, in this comparison, all bibles that use the Masoretic Hebrew texts are on an equal basis here. We use the King James Bible because it's one of the oldest and most read bibles.
When Jesus told the Pharisees, "Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me" (John 5:39), he was not talking about the King James Version (and then we'll have to ask which KJV), or any version of the Bible, for bibles were not in existence at this time. The scriptures Jesus was referring to were the Greek Old Testament (the Septuagint) and the Hebrew Old Testament books.

One of the scriptures that you hear all the time is 2 Timothy 1:7, "For God hath not given us the spirit of fear; but of power, and of love, and of a sound mind." But preachers never tell you what a sound mind is! I mean, is a sound mind going and getting certified by your psychiatrist that you're OK? What is a sound mind? You can search the King James for what a "sound mind" is, but you will never find it. You will find it in the Septuagint, however.



Proverbs 9:10 (KJV): "The fear of the LORD is the beginning of wisdom: and the knowledge of the holy is understanding."Proverbs 9:10 (LXX): "The fear of the LORD is the beginning of wisdom, and the council of saints is understanding: for to know the law is the character of a sound mind."

There is no comparison between the two, the KJV leaves out half of this verse. You can't believe how often this occurs between the Septuagint and the King James Version; they left so much out. You have to ask yourself, why would the translators not want people to know that to know the law is the character of a sound mind? Ignorance is probably one of the main controlling factors for those is power. And this is one of the reasons they founded the doctrine that we live under grace and not under the law so heavily, as if they were opposed.
Now that we know that if you don't have the fear of the Lord, and the council of the saints, and if you don't know the law, then you have an "unsound mind," let's go on and find out from the Septuagint how this comes about. How do we end up developing this unsound mind? Well, by listening to politicians, lawyers, teachers, the people in the media, etc.
Proverbs 26:22 in the KJV doesn't tell you much at all. It sounds soft. It's poetic and it leaves you hanging up in the air. It's like reading Alice in Wonderland or Shakespeare. Compare this same verse to the Septuagint:


Proverbs 26:22 (KJV): "The words of a talebearer are as wounds, and they go down into the innermost parts of the belly."
Proverbs 26:22 (LXX): "The words of cunning knaves are soft; but they smite even to the inmost parts of the bowels."
If you look up the word "knave," which is not used much anymore, you will discover it means "a dishonest, deceitful person, tricky rascal, rogue." This is synonymous with evildoer. Whereas the term the KJV uses is "talebearer," and simply means "gossip," or someone who is a tattle tale, or someone who likes to read fairy tales. And how many pastors say that words are not important? Words can kill you, they get down right into your gut and they rob you of your physical life and your spiritual life.
Now, let's look at Proverbs 18:19-21. The King James and Septuagint are so diametrically opposed, that it's scary.


Proverbs 18:19 (KJV): "A brother offended is harder to be won than a strong city: and their contentions are like the bars of a castle."
Proverbs 18:19 (LXX): "A brother helped by a brother is as a strong and high city; and is as strong as a well-founded palace."
The King James' version just does not make much sense. It's supposed to be a brother "helped" by a brother, not a brother "offended" by a brother. This is the importance of fellowship and why brothers have to help brothers. Brothers helping brothers become a fortress! And it all has to do with words, as the next verse states.


Proverbs 18:20 (KJV): "A man's belly shall be satisfied with the fruit of his mouth; and with the increase of his lips shall he be filled."
Proverbs 18:20 (LXX): "A man fills his belly with the fruits of his mouth; and he shall be satisfied with the fruits of his lips."
In this verse, the King James is basically saying that the more man talks, he's going to be filled. It sounds like a formula for a politician or a lawyer. Same repetition as the Pharisees in the marketplace. But the Septuagint says by the "fruits" of man's lips, not by the "increase" of his lips. It's WHAT he says, and not how MUCH he says, that's important.

The King James version of Proverbs 18:20 contradicts many other verses within the King James itself. Here are a few examples, Proverbs 10:19, "In the multitude of words there wanteth not sin: but he that refraineth his lips is wise." Proverbs 13:3, "He that keepeth his mouth keepeth his life: but he that openeth wide his lips shall have destruction." Proverbs 14:23, "In all labour there is profit: but the talk of the lips tendeth only to penury." Proverbs 16:30, "...moving his lips he bringeth evil to pass." Proverbs 17:28, "Even a fool, when he holdeth his peace, is counted wise: and he that shutteth his lips is esteemed a man of understanding." Ecclesiastes 5:3,"...a fool's voice is known by multitude of words." Ecc.10:14, "A fool also is full of words."

When the King James Bible was first published in 1611, it included the Apocrypha. In the King James' own Apocrypha, in Ecclesiasticus, it states, "A man ofmany words shall be hated." Now, sometimes people are chided for using the Apocrypha, because it supposedly doesn't line up with the Word of God. But my first question is, "Well, what are you claiming to be the Word of God? The King James Bible itself?" Now, right here, in Proverbs 18:20, is an admission from the King James Bible. It is inconsistent with itself, and with the Apocrypha. And if it's inconsistent, it must not be the truth. Something had to be set aside, and guess what they set aside? The Apocrypha, because it had the appearance that it did not line up with the rest of what King James had put out there as the Word of God.

Proverbs 18:21 (KJV): "Death and life are in the power of the tongue: and they that love it shall eat the fruit thereof."
Proverbs 18:21 (LXX): "Life and death are in the power of the tongue; and they that rule it shall eat the fruits thereof."
They will eat the fruits by ruling their own tongue, not by loving it. Those who love their tongue will use a multitude of words and increase their lips, which are condemned in scripture. However, by ruling our tongue, and being particular and careful about the words we are using, and knowing the meanings, knowing the definitions, we will bear the fruits of it. Also, this verse starts out "life and death", but the King James reverses it.

Here is another verse comparison which is opposed to each other. Either it's David's cup or God's, it can't be both.

Psalms 23:5 (KJV): "Thou preparest a table before me in the presence of mine enemies: thou anointest my head with oil; my cup [David's cup] runneth over."
Psalms 22:5 (LXX): "Thou has prepared [passed tense] a table before me in presence of them that afflict me: thou hast thoroughly anointed my head with oil; and thy cup [God's cup] cheers me like the best wine."
Let's see what's going on in the financial realm today. Here is an example of how the King James promotes the idea to give your hard earned money to some man-made Church:

Proverbs 3:9 (KJV): "Honour the LORD with thy substance, and with the firstfruits of all thine increase:"
Proverbs 3:9 (LXX): "Honour the Lord with thy just labours, and give him the first of thy fruits of righteousness.
You see, you don't honor God with the "substance" of you "increase" (money), you honor God through your godly "labours" and your "righteousness." The problem is that the people who are out there doing the robbing certainly aren't going to want to hear it, but even the people who are being robbed don't even like to hear these truths.

Isaiah 3:12-13 (KJV): "As for my people, children are their oppressors, and women rule over them. O my people, they which lead thee cause thee to err, and destroy the way of thy paths."
Isaiah 3:12-13 (LXX): "O my people, your extractors strip you, and extortioners rule over you: O my people, they that pronounce you blessed lead you astray, and pervert the path of your feet."
It is not "children" and "women" who are the oppressors, as the King James would have you believe, it is "extractors" and "extortioners" who are the oppressors. Also notice how the King James deletes the fact that "they who pronounce you blessed", or, in other words, hypocritical religious leaders, lead you astray and pervert you. Why would the King James hide this fact?

The above verse from the Septuagint sounds exactly like America today. What is an "extractor"? Extraction means, "the act or process of extracting, compulsion to give or furnish, a levying by force, a driving to compliance as the extraction of tribute or of obedience, hence extortion." And to extract means, "to rest as a fee or reward when none is due." And this is what is going on in the country today by the whole corporate structure. If you look at the Internal Revenue Code at section 61, it will tell you that the tax is "imposed". Go to any dictionary, and imposed means, "To force (oneself, one's presence or will, etc.) on another or others without right or invitation; obtrude."

So you are without excuse when somebody, like the IRS, is telling you, "Here, I'm doing this without rights. Are you going to buy into it? I know I don't have the right to do it, I know I'm acting unlawfully. Do you want to partake of my evil…my sin? Do you want me to be a parasite to get along in my life, regardless of whatever kind of life you might have?"

Everything that the natural man has done, he has made admissions every step of the way that he has gone. There's been no such thing as a conspiracy, or of doing things in secret. All these things are already written down. But are you diligently seeking? Do you know what it is that you read when you read? Do you know what's being said to you? Do you know the words that are said to you? Do you know what they mean and how they are being used? Do you understand your own grammar? Do you understand syntax? Do you understand sentence structure? This is what's required of being diligent.

Ecclesiasticus 21:8 (LXX - Apocrypha): "He that buildeth his house with other men's money is like one that gathereth himself stones for the tomb of his burial."
This is where the term mortgage comes from. Mort means "death" (as in mortuary or mortality), and gage means "pledge". Mort-gage means a "dead pledge." InBouvier's Law Dictionary of 1856Dead-Pledge is defined as "a mortgage of lands or goods." A mortgage means you're going to give the banks your money and they're not going to give you anything back!

Nehemiah 5:3-5, "…We have mortgaged our lands, vineyards, and houses…We have borrowed money for the king's tribute, and that upon our lands and vineyards…and, lo, we bring into bondage our sons and our daughters to be servants, and some of our daughters are brought unto bondage already: neither is it in our power to redeem them; for other men have our lands and vineyards."

Leviticus 25:23, "The land shall not be sold for ever: for the land is mine; for ye are strangers and sojourners with me."
Nobody, at law, owns any land. So where do all these mortgage companies, banks, and the government get "titles" to God's property? They made it up! So, you can see why the powers that be, that were financing the various versions of the bible, had a vested monetary interest, and that's why they changed all these truths. And all these truths are readily available in the Septuagint.


Comparing New Testament quotations of Old Testament verses


The following verses will show how Jesus and the apostles quoted from the Greek Septuagint. Anyone can easily verify the divergent readings between the Septuagint and Masoretic texts by merely using a reference Bible that will identify the sources of quotations used by the New Testament writers. For example, 1 Peter 4:18 is quoting from Proverbs 11:31 in the Old Testament. The only problem is that 1 Peter 4:18, although faithful to Proverbs 11:31 in the Septuagint version, is barely recognizable in the Masoretic text - the King James version.

1) 1 Peter 4:18 is barely recognizable in the King James version.

1 Peter 4:18 "And if the righteous scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear?"Proverbs 11:31 (LXX): "If the righteous scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear?"
Proverbs 11:31 (KJV): "Behold, the righteous shall be recompensed in the earth: much more the wicked and the sinner."
2) James quotes from Proverbs 3:34 here. Although it is identical to the Septuagint, it is barely recognizable in the King James.

James 4:6 "…God resisteth the proud, but giveth grace unto the humble."
Proverbs 3:34 (LXX): "The Lord resists the proud; but he gives grace to the humble."
Proverbs 3:34 (KJV): "Surely he scorneth the scorners: but he giveth grace unto the lowly."
3) Again, this verse in Isaiah, which Jesus quoted from in Matthew, is not recognizable in the King James Bible!

Matthew 15:9 (KJV): "But in vain do they worship me, Teaching as their doctrines the precepts of men."
Isaiah 29:13 (LXX): "…but in vain do they worship me, teaching the commandments and doctrines of men."
Isaiah 29:13 (KJV): "…and their fear of me is a commandment of men which hath been taught them..."
4) Notice Jesus' words in Matthew 21:16 when he quoted from Psalm 8:2. They do not come from the King James Bible, but from the Septuagint.

Matthew 21:16, "…Out of the mouth of babes and sucklings thou hast perfected praise?"Psalms 8:2 (LXX): "Out of the mouth of babes and sucklings hast thou perfected praise…"
Psalms 8:2 (KJV): "Out of the mouth of babes and sucklings hast thou ordained strength…"

5) Revelation 2:26 says, "And he that overcometh, and keepeth my works unto the end, to him will I give power over the nations:" Will those who overcome rule the heathen, or will they hurt and do evil to them? The next verse quotes Psalms 2:9:

Revelation 2:27 "And he shall rule them with a rod of iron…"Psalms 2:9 (LXX): "Thou shalt rule them with a rod of iron…"
Psalms 2:9 (KJV): "Thou shalt break them with a rod of iron…"

6) Matthew 21:42 says, "Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scriptures..." Well, the answer is they sure did not read this passage from the Masoretic Hebrew scriptures, but they did read it from the Septuagint!

Matthew 21:42: "...The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner:Psalms 117:22 (LXX): "The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner."
Psalms 118:22 (KJV): "The stone which the builders refused is become the head stone of the corner."

Best Evidence


Now, is the King James the best evidence? Which one has the better testimony? Even the King James Bible itself is quoting the Septuagint, which the King James admits is a superior and better source. So, the above verses are witnesses, and there are four witnesses that state the Septuagint is a better evidence. The King James Bible itself is one witness, Jesus is another, Peter is another, and James is another. But since all the writers of the New testament quoted from the Septuagint, they are all witnesses!

King James is quoting from the Septuagint, a superior authority than his own. If you were to put the King James on trial, and you look up the Rules concerning Best Evidence in a court of law, the Rule of Best Evidence states, "A writing is the best evidence of its own content, and must be introduced, unless it has been lost or destroyed."

Well, the Septuagint has not been lost or destroyed, it's still here. And even the King is quoting from it! But he's not bringing forth the original writing in his own bible. So, the King James Bible is obviously not the best evidence. Its Old Testament is from some other copy of some other rendition, which is the Masoretic Hebrew, which came about between the 8th and 10th century after Christ. So the King James Bible is not even translated from the original Hebrew! But the Septuagint WAS translated from the original Hebrew 285 years before Christ. So, here we have established that the King James Bible is inferior, or secondary, or even hearsay evidence if you will. We are using the King James against them, and they can't deny that.

The Rule concerning Best Evidence also states, "As understood and applied in present day practice, the best evidence rule requires that whenever a party seeks to prove the contents of a writing, he must produce the original writing, or satisfactory account for its absence." Well, we can satisfactory account for the absence of the original Hebrew because we can't find it! It's lost. What is alleged to be Hebrew today, or is spoken as Hebrew, is the Masoretic Hebrew. Nobody really knows what the original Hebrew sounded like, or how it was pronounced.

So, what is the Best Evidence Rule attempting to present? "The best evidence rule is to prevent fraud." Well, if King James is quoting from the Septuagint, and Christ Jesus is quoting from the Septuagint, and the apostles are quoting from the Septuagint, King James is admitting to himself, and admitting to the world, that his bible is fraudulent! It's not the best evidence. We're not trying to impugn anything, we're just seeing what the Rules of Evidence would say about the King James Bible, and how the law declares it. We're not saying that God can't use the King James Bible, because he certainly can and does. I know he did with me because I grew spiritually on the King James. The King James is a stepping stone, but it's not the place to stay. We move on. It's the watered down version, it's the milk of the Word, and the Septuagint is the meat of God's Word.



Milk versus Meat



Hebrews 5:12-14 - Hebrews 6:1-3, "For when for the time ye ought to be teachers, ye have need that one teach you again which be the first principles of the oracles of God; and are become such as have need of milk, and not of strong meat. For every one that useth milk is unskilful in the word of righteousness: for he is a babe. But strong meat belongeth to them that are of full age, even those who by reason of use have their senses exercised todiscern both good and evil. Therefore leaving the principles of the doctrine of Christ, let us go on unto perfection; not laying again the foundation of repentance from dead works, and of faith toward God, Of the doctrine of baptisms, and of laying on of hands, and of resurrection of the dead, and of eternal judgment [because we already know those things]. And this will we do, if God permit."

But you can go into one of these 501(c)(3) corporate religious businesses, and they've been preaching the same message, and saying the same thing repetitiously, for years, over and over again. It's just a constant diet of watered down milk. All it's going to produce is sophistry, which means "one who teaches ethical or moral science for payment." And from the pulpit today, that's all you're getting. In all the Church businesses, they always get their money up front, and then you hear the sophistry afterwards. What man would by a piece of land, sight unseen? Or buy anything before seeing it or hearing it? So why would you put money in the plate before you even hear what this sophist has to say, or whether it's even close to the Word of God?

If you flip on a religious TV station, for example, you watch and listen to these guys expound on their theories of who God is, and all you're getting is the milk. You can't survive on milk. And if all you get is milk, you end up dying in the end, spiritually. This is why we fail to see the fruits of the spirit being manifest in people today; the love, the peace, the joy, and the other fruits of the spirit. If you look around the world today, there is no joy. The abundant life is gone. And it's all due to the fact that they haven't matured in the Word, they've stayed on the milk and have not eaten more solid food. If you keep someone on milk forever, they'll wind up dying on you. You have to move on to more solid food.

The same thing happens when you read from the King James Bible for instance. If you don't move on from its milk, and get into a more meatier substance (i.e. Brenton's Edition of The Septuagint, and George Ricker Berry's Interlinear Greek English New Testament), you will end up dying, your bones start to get soft, your muscles start to wither, you're no longer exercising.
A soldier is always out there exercising so that he may be ready and useful for battle. But if you're going to use inferior tools, or if you're not going to be fully exercised, or you're only going to go through the motions but never really do them, then all you're ending up with is a fat, lazy military who, when the order is given to march, they sit back and say, "Well, according to my interpretation of this passage of the order, it doesn't mean this", and so the order is never executed. Then another order comes down. Now you've got a second order when the first order hasn't even been executed yet, because we've re-interpreted the first order. When the second order comes down, we re-interpret that, and that one doesn't get executed.

There's a lot of people out there hungry for the meat of the Word. The meat of the Word is what we saw executed in Christ. When we look at the word "Proverb" for example, there's a couple of places in the New Testament where the Greek word there is translated to a "parable." There's some textual critics that say this word should have been translated 'proverb." Well, if you break down the word proverb, the word pro means "either for or against", and verb is an action word. So 'proverb' is something to be done, or action. So, when Christ was speaking in parables, he was talking in a way that showed you how to execute whatever principle he was expounding in the proverb, which the Pharisees could not understand because they were not into execution, they were into philosophizing. The same word that's used as "proverb" in the Old Testament is the same word that's used in the New Testament in the Greek. And the Proverbs in the Old Testament, when you read them, they're not something that are static, they actually lift off the page and are actually performed and done. We may not know we are doing them at the time, consciously, because God has already written us a copy of the Law on our heart. And when you're executing a copy of the Law that he's written on your heart, you're not doing it with an intellectual interference.

When you read the Greek of the Septuagint, and then you go to the New Testament and read the Greek of the same thing that Christ was expounding, you'll also see the same words used . But you can't find those same words if you're reading an English only Bible, because the Old Testament words are from the Masoretic Hebrew which don't necessarily correspond to what was translated to the English from the Greek in the New Testament.

Here is our Lord confirming what he wrote 285 years before he came! Why then would I need something that is a translation from another source that does not have God's seal of approval? There is not one place in the Masoretic Hebrew where they can show that God ever authorized them to change the original language by adding vowel points to it. So, if there's no authority for doing such an act, then where's the source, cause, and origin of that act? It's in the heart of the man that authorized it, and out of the abundance of the heart does the mouth speaketh (Matthew 12:34, Luke 6:45). So, if the language has been corrupted without authority, then we know that whoever did it had an evil heart. Because the authority did not come from Christ himself.

Even in there own law, man admits that they know the truth, and one of their maxims of law states, "He who does not speak the truth is a betrayer of the truth." So, if people are doctoring up the truth intentionally, or they are not really speaking the truth, they are actually betraying the truth! They are traitors themselves. And they can't say, "I'm ignorant" because ignorance of the law is no excuse.


Women and Wives


The Septuagint is replete with all kinds of wonderful information on women, both good and bad, and how to differentiate between the two. It answers the question of romance and involvement completely, and what to avoid, for both the women and the men that are out their looking for a husband or wife. With the introduction of television and soap operas, we are in about a third generation of women who have been raised on soap opera values, which are the commercial values of the world. And the main job of the merchant is to get us to prostitute ourselves to turn away from what our true calling is in God, and sell ourselves out for the material things of the world.

Today, we sit in some homes and see people treating and acting like these situation comedies, cutting each other down. It's lazy comedy, because they can't really do anything funny, so they have to use shock and embarrassment to make them laugh because they don't know what humor really is. Then people start to imitate this and it destroys the family. And their main target were the wives, mothers, and women because the women are in the home and had the access to the television. And the merchants know that "the hand that rocks the cradle rules the world." Men are supposed to be protecting the women with God's Law.

1) Let's compare Proverbs 5:3-6.

Proverbs 5:3-6 (KJV): "For the lips of a strange woman drop as an honeycomb, and her mouth is smoother than oil: But her end is bitter as wormwood, sharp as a twoedged sword. Her feet go down to death; her steps take hold on hell. Lest thou shouldest ponder the path of life, her ways are moveable, that thou canst not know them."
This King James verse is pretty muddy. You can get a little bit out of it but not a whole lot. Here's the Septuagint reading:

Proverbs 5:3-6 (LXX): "Give no heed to a worthless woman; for honey drops from the lips of a harlot, who for a season pleases thy palate: but afterwards thou wilt find her more bitter than gall, and sharper than a two-edged sword. For the feet of folly lead those who deal with her down to the grave with death; and her steps are not established. For she goes not upon the paths of life; but her ways are slippery, and not easily known."
Now that doesn't leave too much left to the imagination and speculation, does it? This verse doesn't apply to just women in gender, you can also apply this to the philosopher, or to the feminized man, they do exactly the same thing. So, the sword cuts both ways. The word 'woman' is used here because these are the attributes that a woman of ill-repute exhibits, but these are the same attributes that a feminized man, who is also a man of ill-repute, also exhibits. This applies to everyone who sells themselves out from their calling and their purpose that the Lord has called them towards, which is only revealed in the Word of God; not on a soap opera, not on a sitcom, not on anything that comes out of the media.

2) Now you know why Paul would not suffer a woman to speak in a lawful assembly; he wasn't referring only to sex, he was referring to the effeminate man. Men with feminine characteristics. And this is why the Church has been feminized:

Proverbs 19:15 (KJV): "Slothfulness casteth into a deep sleep; and an idle soul shall suffer hunger."
Proverbs 19:15 (LXX): "Cowardice possesses the effeminate man; and the soul of the sluggard shall hunger."
You know, our lives are not reality, they're not real, we've been living according to a script. If you're relying on somebody else's script, what does that tell you about what kind of spirit you have in your heart? It's dead. We live according to the image that we hold in our mind, and we need to have the image we hold in our mind conformed to that of the only begotten Son of God. Otherwise, we're following the script of the world and the images that come over the television.


Thoughts


There is not necessarily a conspiracy here by the King James translators. Since I came to the knowledge that the majority text is the Word of God, I wanted to find out more about the King James and the history of it. I bought into the "King James Only" thing for many, many years. I was reading the King James and it says to "study", instead of to "be diligent" (2 Timothy 2:15). Once I realized that this verse says to "be diligent", I decided to be diligent and look at the King James a little closer, and look at its history. And the King James isn't really a translation, it is a compilation of all the previous bibles of the reformation, such as the Coverdale, the Tyndale, the Great Bible, and the Geneva Bible. King James put their phrasing into his Bible.
What should somebody do when they find out that what they've believed is a lie? A maxim of Law states, "It is better to retrace your steps than to proceed wrongly."

There's a big difference between a translation and a transcription. A transcription is done word for word as close to the original as possible. And as soon as you starttranslating, you are interjection your own knowledge from the tree of good and evil. You're just interjecting your own opinions to translate whatever it is you're reading. That's why there's so much confusion when people start talking about, "Well what translation do I get?" Well, really you don't want any of them, what you really want is the transcription. A word for word transcription into the English language.

To give an example, When you read the Psalms in the King James Version, everything that David was saying was in the future tense, "God will do this." But in the Septuagint, it is in the passed tense. God had already done it, he had already accomplished it in David's life. The blessings of God, David had them all, and he knew it as long as he was obedient. He had everything that God had promised. And we are the same way, as long as we are obedient to God, we will receive the blessings of God. There's no futuristic tense there, we have all of these blessings, they are ours. But we have to be obedient, walking in faith, which means walking in true allegiance to God and not to man.


Respecting Persons


To give you an example, when you go to the lineage's in Matthew and Luke that describe the earthly genealogy of Christ, the King James says, "Abraham begat Isaac, Isaac begat Jacob, Jacob begat Judas," etc. When you go to the way the Greek mind puts things down on paper, it reads, "Abraham generated the Isaac, the Isaac generated the Jacob, the Jacob generated the Judas." In other words, the name that you carry is an attribute of who you are.

From this point on, we see how names play a big role, and how, if you're generated by "The State," how the State has jurisdiction over you. When you give the recognition (i.e. you have the respect of persons), you stray away from God's Law. This is why Jesus is called either "Jesus the Christ," or "Christ Jesus," and never as "Jesus Christ".

God reveals to us everything we need to know in His Words, and especially in the Septuagint, and how important it is for us to know that we are never supposed to respect a man's person. And especially our own, because to respect means to acknowledge or to honor that. And as soon as we acknowledge that we are "persons" we step out of the jurisdiction of God, we step out of His Kingdom, we have acknowledged something that's false and not of Him, and we are saying to the fictional powers that be, "Yea, I'm in your sandbox now and do with me what you want to because I'm a person. Have at me."

Proverbs 22:26 is only one of the many places that God brings this up. It doesn't do this as clearly in the King James, but it does in the Septuagint. But even in the King James, they didn't completely conceal it, but they didn't give you the key word there, but they do in other places in the King James, but they use it opaquely.

Proverbs 22:26 (KJV): "Be not thou one of them that strike hands, or of them that are sureties for debts."
Proverbs 22:26 (LXX): "Become not surety from respect of a man's person."
In other words, do not become a surety from even acknowledging the man's person. You're the man, and their own maxim of law reads, "every person is a man, but not every man is a person." So they know this, that all statutory fictions only have jurisdiction over the person. And the only way they can establish any kind of authority over you , to penalize you, is you have to consent and acknowledge to being that person first!

Now, the maxim of law states, "A slave is not a person." "A slave, and everything a slave has, belongs to his master." So, if you are a slave, or a servant of Christ, you don't fit that description of being the person described in their statutes. You're not there, you're not found. But you have to bring forth the best evidence at every turn. How do we know you're not a slave? By their fruits you will know them. 1 John 4:5, "They are of the world: therefore speak they of the world," so you don't speak of the world, you don't know the terms of the world, you don't have respect of persons, you don't fit the profile of being a person. This all has to be done in truth, and not a self serving declaration. "I am who I say I am." Oh really? Does the spirit of God bear witness of you? Or does the spirit of God bear witness against you? The Truth is, "I am who God says I am." That's where the truth is, because the Spirit is the truth, not the words that came out of your mouth.

John 7:18: "He that speaketh of himself seeketh his own glory: but he that seeketh his glory that sent him, the same is true, and no unrighteousness is in him."
So if you're speaking of yourself and you make a self serving declaration, and the spirit of God does not bear witness of the words that came out of your mouth, you're found out to be a liar, and therefore the perfection of God is not there.
James 2:9, "But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors."
Proverbs 24:23 (KJV): "These things also belong to the wise. It is not good to have respect of persons in judgment."
Proverbs 24:23 (LXX): "And this thing I say to you that are wise for you to learn: it is not good to give respect of persons in judgment."
Job 32:22 (KJV): "For I know not to give flattering titles; in so doing my maker would soon take me away."
Job 32:22 (LXX): "For I know not how to respect persons: and if otherwise, even the moths would eat me."
So Job knew the importance of not designating yourself as a creation of man, and negating the fact that you are a son of God, not a creation of the State. So there are millions of people running around that do not know who they are or what they are.

It's the spirit in the words that are written in God's Word that are life. The words themselves don't have any life as far as them sitting on the paper. That's why it was given to you in your heart that you might not sin against Him and that you might do His Will. The Septuagint speaks directly to your heart, simply.


Other Contradictory verses in the King James Bible



  1. The scripture specifically mentions seven nations that the Israelites were forbidden to enter into covenants with. All seven are listed in Deuteronomy 7:1. But for some reason, when these "seven" nations are repeated in other parts of scripture, the KJV deletes one of them, the Girgashites, whereas the Septuagint retains all seven of them (Exodus 23:23; 34:11). Likewise, Genesis 15:21 lists five nations, but the King James deletes one of them, the "Evites."
  2. In Acts 7:14, Stephen relates the story of the Israelite nation and refers to 75 people who traveled from Canaan to Egypt in the emigration of Jacob's family. Genesis 46:27 and Exodus 1:5 in the King James falsely state "70." Genesis 46:27 and Exodus 1:5 in the Septuagint correctly read 75, which agrees with Acts 7:14. The Old Testament books, in most bibles, is translated from a corrupted Masoretic Text, which is why "70" is mistranslated at Genesis 46:27 and Exodus 1:5 in most bibles.
  3. In the King James bible, 2 Samuel 24:13 says there would be seven years of famine, but 1 Chronicles 21:12 says three years of famine. In the Septuagint, both verses accurately read three years of famine.
  4. In the King James bible, 2 Kings 8:26 says Ahaziah was 22 years old when he began his reign, 2 Chronicles 22:2 says he was 42 years old. The Septuagint accurately reads 22 years old for both.
  5. In the King James Bible, 1 Kings 5:16 says there were 3300 overseers, and 2 Chronicles 2:18, speaking of the same thing, says there were 3600 overseers. In the Septuagint, both verses accurately read 3600 (3600 is also confirmed in III Kings, chapter 3, first paragraph, in the Septuagint).
  6. Speaking of the same exact event, the King James Bible says there were 700 horsemen in 2 Samuel 8:4, but 7000 horsemen in 1 Chronicles 18:4. In the Septuagint, both verses accurately read 7,000 horsemen.
  7. In the King James Bible, 1 Kings 7:26 says there were 2000 baths, and 2 Chronicles 4:5 says there were 3000 baths. In the Septuagint, 1 Kings 7:26 does not exist, so there's no contradiction.
  8. In the King James Bible, 1 Kings 9:23 says there were 550 people that bear rule, and 2 Chronicles 8:10 says that 250 people bear rule. In the Septuagint, 1 Kings 9:23 does not exist, so there's no contradiction.
  9. In Joshua 10:15, where this verse is omitted in the Septuagint, it can easily be seen that this verse, in the King James, does not belong and is out of place. Because the Israelitish army did not return to the camp at Gilgal till after the hanging of the five kings and the destruction of their cities. This is sufficiently evident from the subsequent parts of this chapter. When all this business was done, and not before, is when they returned to the camp to Gilgal (see Joshua 10:43). This verse is omitted by the Septuagint; and it does not appear to have existed in the ancient hexaplar versions; it stands in its proper place in Joshua 10:43, and is not only useless in Joshua 10:15, but appears to be an encumbrance to the narrative. Should it be considered as genuine and in its proper place, I would propose that the camp at Gilgal should be read instead the camp at Makkedah, for we find from Joshua 10:21 that Joshua had a temporary camp there, after which we may suppose that Joshua having secured the cave, sent some detachments to scour the country and cut off all the remaining straggling Canaanites; when this was done they also returned to the camp at Makkedah, as is related Jos 10:21, and when the business was completed they struck the camp at Makkedah, and all returned to their fortified camp at Gilgal (Joshua 10:43).

Actual Fragments of the Septuagint

The following are pictures of actual fragments of the Septuagint published and now at the museum of Cairo, W.G WADELL, 1944, in Journal of Theological Studies, Volume 45 pages 158-161. They show the tetragramaton untranslated in Hebrew square characters.
The word in the circle is YHWH. This is not Greek, it is Hebrew and is the Holy name of God. If you notice the text is in Greek, only the holy name was left untranslated. This name is also referred as the tetragramaton.
These are fragments of the book of Deutrononomy of a septuagint found in Egypt, possible dating around 100 B.C. the great discovery was that early copies of the septuagint did not substitute the name of God (YHWH) with GOD or LORD, but left it untranslated in Hebrew.
http://www.ecclesia.org/truth/septuagint.html
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http://www.israeltoday.co.il/NewsItem/tabid/178/nid/23877/Default.aspx

http://www.israeltoday.co.il/Portals/0//news/130530_kadurinote.jpg

http://www.jewsforjesus.org/publications/issues/v13-n02/fourfacts __________________________________________

https://blogs.ancientfaith.com/onbehalfofall/justin-martyr-on-the-greek-old-testament/


http://www.earlychristiandictionary.com/Septuagint.html

http://www.ecclesia.org/truth/septuagint_blessing.html

http://earlychristianfellowship.org/?page_id=12757

http://www.matthewbryan.net/lxx2.html

http://www.wheaton.edu/~/media/Files/Academics/Faculty/Graves-Michael/GravesAugustineLXX.pdf


St. Justin Martyr ( 100 AD - 165 AD )

Justin’s Hortatory Address to the Greeks

http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.viii.vi.xiii.html

Chapter XIII. 
History of the Septuagint.

" written by divine power "

" a work of Divine Providence "

St. Justin Martyr

http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf01.viii.iv.lxxi.html

http://www.britannica.com/biography/Saint-Justin-Martyr

http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/justin.html


http://www.bible-researcher.com/kingjames.html

http://www.dbts.edu/journals/1996_2/Preface.pdf

http://www.dbts.edu/2012/04/09/the-embarrassing-preface-to-the-king-james-version/

http://www.ccel.org/bible/kjv/preface/pref5.htm


http://www.kjvbibles.com/kjpreface.htm

http://www.ccel.org/bible/kjv/preface/pref5.htm

Greek Septuagint LXX

Preface to the King James Version 1611

[ Greek Septuagint LXX ]

prepared the way for our Saviour
among the Gentiles by written preaching,
as Saint John Baptist did among the Jews by vocal. 

For the Grecians being desirous of learning, were not wont to suffer books of worth to lie moulding in Kings' libraries, but had many of their servants, ready scribes, to copy them out, and so they were dispersed and made common. 

Again, the Greek tongue was well known and made familiar to most inhabitants in Asia, by reason of the conquest that there the Grecians had made, as also by the Colonies, which thither they had sent.  For the same causes also it was well understood in many places of Europe, yea, and of Africa too. 

Therefore the word of God being set forth in Greek, 
becometh hereby like a candle set upon a candlestick, 
which giveth light to all that are in the house,
or like a proclamation sounded forth in the market place,
which most men presently take knowledge of;
and therefore that language was fittest to contain the Scriptures,
both for the first Preachers of the Gospel to appeal unto for witness,
and for the learners also of those times to make search and trial by.

http://www.ccel.org/bible/kjv/preface/pref5.htm



http://www.ccel.org/bible/kjv/preface/pref5.htm




________________________________________

Augustine, City of God

http://faculty.georgetown.edu/jod/augustine/civ.html

http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/120118.htm


Augustine 


The City of God (Book XVIII)

the Church has received this Septuagint translation just as if it were the only one; and it has been used by the Greek Christian people, most of whom are not aware that there is any other. 

the churches of Christ judge that no one should be preferred to the authority of so many men, chosen for this very great work by Eleazar, who was then high priest; 

without doubt divine


Chapter 42.— By What Dispensation of God's Providence the Sacred Scriptures of the Old Testament Were Translated Out of Hebrew into Greek, that They Might Be Made Known to All the Nations.


Chapter 43.— Of the Authority of the Septuagint Translation, Which, Saving the Honor of the Hebrew Original, is to Be Preferred to All Translations.



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http://ebible.org/web/webfaq.htm

WEB   Bible


What original language texts are you using?

Since this is primarily an update of the 1901 edition, the choices made by the original 50 or so Evangelical scholars that made this translation hold unless reference is made to the original languages to help with places where the Elizabethan English is not clear, or where major textual variants are known to exist. 

In this case, we are using the Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia, also called The Stuttgart Bible, in the Old Testament, 

and the Byzantine Majority Text as published for use with The Online Bible in the New Testament (M-Text). 

This choice of Greek text is very close to what the KJV translators used, but does take advantage of some more recently discovered manuscripts. 

Although there are good scholarly arguments both for and against using the Byzantine Majority Text over the “Alexandrian” text based on the dating and critical editing work of Nestle and Aland and published by the United Bible Societies (NU), 
we find the following to be compelling reasons:

The NU text has a lot of “dropout” errors relative to the M-Text. Diligent scribes with a respect for God’s Word are more likely to miss copying something (i.e. by skipping a line, etc.) than to make up a line to add in.

Different scribes copying the same passage aren’t all likely to make the same mistakes at the same places, even though some mistakes are likely to be copied over many times.

When a scribe had a choice of manuscripts to copy, he would normally copy the one that he trusted the most, thus causing the most trusted text to be copied more often.

The NU text relies heavily on the dating of the media upon which the text was written, but those texts that are used more and trusted more would both be copied more often and worn out from use sooner.

The NU text is heavily weighted to a small number of manuscripts relative to those available to us, and relies heavily on one manuscript that was pulled from a trash can at a monastery.

The Holy Spirit takes an active interest in preserving what He has inspired.

In those few sections where the M-Text and UBS text differ significantly, I have taken my question of textual choice directly to God, and God chose to answer me by confirming in several different ways that reading which the M-Text rendered. The main passage in question is in Mark 16, but there are others, too. While I certainly don’t claim to be infallible, I do know when to say, “Yes, Sir” and follow the direction I see the Lord pointing me in. For you, this last reason is entirely subjective. For me, it is more real than the computer I'm typing on.



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http://www.cbcg.org/franklin/SA/SA_NT_Originally_Written_in_Greek.pdf

THE NEW TESTAMENT WAS 
ORIGINALLY WRITTEN IN GREEK 


Greek Language New Testament

http://www.ntgreek.org/answers/nt_written_in_greek.htm



In what language was the Bible first written?

http://www.biblica.com/en-us/bible/bible-faqs/in-what-language-was-the-bible-first-written/


NT Greek
https://faculty.gordon.edu/hu/bi/ted_hildebrandt/new_testament_greek/text/moulton-ntgreekmodern.pdf


Greek
http://www.daveblackonline.com/ten_best_books_for_studying_new.htm


http://www.ntgreek.org/answers/nt_written_in_greek.htm


Logically (for a number of reasons), to me it only makes sense that the New Testament was written in Greek. Think of who Paul was: the "Apostle to the Gentiles". Obviously he was writing to Greek speaking people, so he would write to them in Greek. There are more reasons, but this is an obvious one. I just ran across this article by William F. Dankenbring. It was written regarding 'the names of God', but chapters 2 and 3 addressed the matter of the New Testament being written in Greek ('Did Jesus and the Apostles Speak Greek?' and ' Was the New Testament Originally Written in Hebrew?') I included those two chapters at the end of this email. If you want to see a more nicely formatted version, or read the whole article, it can be found at: http://hope-of-israel.org/newlksnm.htm
For a related topic, you may also want to read a paper I wrote on "The Evidence from History and the Gospels that Jesus Spoke Greek."
(Please note that this article was originally written to disprove the thought that the only true name of God is the correctly pronounced Hebrew form of that name. Therefore, some of his language gets pretty polemic at times. I post it here mainly for the documentation regarding Greek being the original the language of the New Testament.)


Did Jesus and the Apostles Speak Greek?
Several sects and churches claim that Jesus Christ and
the apostles only spoke Hebrew or Aramaic, and that
the original monographs of the New Testament were all
written in Hebrew, and later translated into Greek. They
consider Greek to be a pagan language. What is the real
truth of the matter? Did Jesus speak Greek?
The September-October 1992 issue of Biblical Archaeology Review contains several fascinating articles which bear heavily on the questions posed for this article. For centuries, scholars have believed -- assumed -- that very few Jews of the first century spoke Greek. They have believed, and taught, that ancient Judea was a "backwater" area of the Roman Empire, and the people were ignorant as a whole of the Greek language, although it is admitted that Greek was the "lingua franca" and "language of commerce" throughout the Roman Empire.
Today, however, new archaeological discoveries have undermined the speculations of scholars and brought into clear light the fact that Greek was well known among the Jews, especially the priesthood, leadership class, and the merchant class. In particular, Greek was well understood in "Galilee of the Gentiles," the region where Jesus Christ of Nazareth was raised, and grew up as a young lad. There is no doubt, therefore, that Jesus and the original apostles all spoke Greek -- commonly, as a "second language."
Evidence from Caiaphas' Tomb
First, let us explore the recent findings in Jerusalem of the actual tomb of Caiaphas, the high priest who condemned Christ. Astonishing as it seems, the burial cave of the Caiaphas family was found, in Jerusalem, by "accident" -- the family of one of the priests who presided at the trial of Jesus. Workers building a water park in 1990 accidentally uncovered an ancient burial cave, underneath what is now a stretch of road in Jerusalem's Peace Forest. The surrounding area was used as an ancient necropolis during the late Second Temple period (first century B.C.- first century A.D.).
In the burial cave, archaeologists found twelve ossuaries, including one decorated with two six-petaled rosettes within concentric circles. The bone box displays a fluted column on a stepped base and topped by an Ionic capital. Inscriptions on two of the ossuaries found here indicate that this was the burial chamber of the Caiaphas family, and one of the ossuaries may well have contained the bones of the high priest who handed Jesus Christ over to the Romans and Pontius Pilate, after interrogating Him (see Matt.26:57-68).
Writes Zvi Grenhut, archaeologist involved in the discovery and identification of the site, "Reburial in ossuaries appears mainly at the end of the first century B.C.E. and in the first century C.E. Reburial in an ossuary was rare in Jewish tombs after the Roman destruction of Jerusalem in 70 C.E." The archaeologist continues:
    "But the most exceptional and significant finds were the two ossuaries that, for the first time in an archaeological context, contained a form of the name Qafa', or Caiaphas, a name known to us from both the New Testament and from the first century Jewish historian Flavius Josephus . . . Suffice it to say that the form(s) of the name Caiaphas inscribed on these ossuaries is probably the same as that of the well-known family of high priests, one of whom presided at Jesus' trial" ("Burial Cave of the Caiaphas Family," BAR, Sept.-Oct. 1992, p.32-35).
One of the ossuaries is simply inscribed "Qafa" (ka-FA). On one the name is more complete -- "Yehosef bar Qayafa" and "Yehosef bar Qafa" (Joseph son of Caiaphas). The ossuary with the more complete forms of the name is the most beautiful one, decorated with a rare and intricate pattern. Says Greenhut:
    "There is no doubt that this ossuary is special. Its elaborate decoration must have something to do with the name(s) inscribed on it. Could this be the ossuary of the high priest who presided at Jesus' trial?
    "Inside this ossuary, we found bones from six different people: two infants, a child between two and five, a young boy between 13 and 18, an adult woman -- and a male of about 60 years!" (ibid., p.35).
Very few of the people mentioned in the pages of the Bible have been proved to have existed by means of archaeological evidence. Therefore, the discovery of the name of Caiaphas, the high priest who lived in Jesus' time, is of astonishing and paramount importance. It verifies a vital element of the story of the trial and crucifixion of Jesus Christ -- the very existence of the high priest who was the head of the Sanhedrin at that very time. Though the New Testament refers to the high priest by the single name "Caiaphas," the Jewish historian Flavius Josephus refers to him as "Joseph who was called Caiaphas of the high priesthood." "
A person named Joseph with the nickname Caiaphas was the high priest in Jerusalem between 18 and 36 C.E.," writes Ronny Reich, in a companion article in the same issue of BAR (see "Caiaphas Name Inscribed on Bone Boxes," p.41). In the New Testament he is simply called "Caiaphas" (Matt.26:3, 57; Luke 3:2; John 11:49, 18:13-14,24,28; Acts 4:6).
Most Jewish Funerary Inscriptions in GREEK!
In the next article in the same issue of Biblical Archaeological Review, the author, Pieter W. Van Der Horst, points out that no less than 1,600 Jewish epitaphs -- funerary inscriptions -- are extant from ancient Palestine dating from 300 B.C. to 500 A.D. The geographical spread of these inscriptions reveal that Jews were living all over the world at that time, especially the Roman period. In other words, when Jesus' brother James said in Acts 15, "Moses has been preached in every city for generations past and is read in the synagogues on every sabbath" (v.21), he was simply stating the truth. Peter, in his first sermon, enumerates a list of the countries from which Jews came to worship on that first Pentecost of the newly formed Christian Church (Acts 2:9-11).
Van Der Horst goes on:
    "One of the most surprising facts about these funerary inscriptions is that most of them are IN GREEK -- approximately 70 percent; about 12 percent are in Latin; and only 18 percent are in Hebrew or Aramaic.
    "These figures are even more instructive if we break them down between Palestine and the Diaspora. Naturally in Palestine we would expect more Hebrew and Aramaic and less Greek. This is true, but not to any great extent. Even in Palestine approximately TWO-THIRDS of these inscriptions are in GREEK.
    "APPARENTLY FOR A GREAT PART OF THE JEWISH POPULATION THE DAILY LANGUAGE WAS GREEK, EVEN IN PALESTINE. This is impressive testimony to the impact of Hellenistic culture on Jews in their mother country, to say nothing of the Diaspora.
    "In Jerusalem itself about 40 PERCENT of the Jewish inscriptions from the first century period (before 70 C.E.) ARE IN GREEK. We may assume that most Jewish Jerusalemites who saw the inscriptions in situ were able to read them" ("Jewish Funerary Inscriptions -- Most Are in Greek," Pieter W. Van Der Horst, BAR, Sept.-Oct.1992, p.48).
These are shocking statements to all who have believed, and taught, that the Jews as a whole were ignorant of Greek during the time of Christ! Obviously, Judea was not a "backwater" and "boorish" part of the Roman Empire, but a most sophisticated and cultivated part. In fact, the Jewish Temple was acknowledged to be the finest building structure throughout the whole Empire! The Jewish people, because of their widespread dispersion in the Empire, for business and commercial purposes, mainly, spoke Greek rather fluently -- and this knowledge and usage of Greek was also common throughout Judea, as this new "funerary inscription" evidence attests!
This really should not be surprising at all. The Greek influence in Judea had grown very significantly since the days of Alexander the Great, circa 330 B.C. By the time of Antiochus Epiphanes, circa 168-165 B.C., Hellenism had become very strong, and many of the high priests had become "Hellenists," leading to the Maccabean revolt. In successive generations, the Greek influence never abated, particularly among the business, commercial and priestly crowd. Many of the priests, being Sadducees, were greatly influenced by Greek culture and contact.
Writes Van Der Horst further:
    "The great rabbi Judah ha-Nasi, the compiler of the Mishnah (a collection of Jewish oral law) in about 200 C.E., was buried in Beth She-arim; the majority of pious Jews who wanted to be buried with him at Beth She-arim had their funerary inscriptions written in Greek.
    "This is not to say Hebrew and Aramaic ever died out completely as languages for the Jews. Especially in the eastern Diaspora, Jews continued to speak a Semitic language. But IN THE FIRST FIVE CENTURIES OF THE COMMON ERA, exactly the period when rabbinic literature was being written in Hebrew and Aramaic, A MAJORITY OF THE JEWS IN PALESTINE and the western Diaspora SPOKE GREEK" (ibid., p.48-54).
All of this is very interesting, of course. But what about Jesus Christ, and the disciples? Did Jesus also use Greek, commonly, in speaking to the people of Judea? For centuries, theologians and scholars have assumed that He only spoke Hebrew or Aramaic. However, this assumption now seems to be far off the mark!
Jesus and the Disciples Spoke Greek!
Another article in the very same issue of BAR discusses this very issue. The author, Joseph A. Fitzmyer, points out that there is no doubt Jesus spoke Aramaic. He shows that although a form of Aramaic was "the dominant language, it was not the only language spoken in Palestine at that time." He continues:
    "The Dead Sea scrolls reveal that a TRILINGUALISM EXISTED IN PALESTINE in the first and second century of the Christian era. In addition to Aramaic, some Jews also spoke Hebrew or Greek -- or both. Different levels of Jewish society, different kinds of religious training and other factors may have determined who spoke what" ("Did Jesus Speak Greek?", same issue ofBAR, p.58).
During the Babylonian captivity, many Jews came to use Aramaic as their first language, a sister language closely akin to Hebrew. Although Hebrew continued in use in the Temple, and the emerging synagogues, Aramaic was the common language of the people during the time of Christ. The majority of the people apparently did not fully understand Hebrew, for the custom arose to have an Aramaic translation read of the Hebrew Scriptures, following the reading in Hebrew, in all the synagogues. These readings and interpretations were done by a person called the meturgeman. In time, they were written down and were called targumin.
But what about Greek? Says Fitzmyer:
    "Greek, of course, was in widespread use in the Roman empire at this time. Even the Romans spoke Greek, as inscriptions in Rome and elsewhere attest. It is hardly surprising, therefore, that THAT GREEK WAS ALSO IN COMMON USE AMONG THE JEWS OF PALESTINE. The Hellenization of Palestine began even before the fourth-century B.C. conquest by Alexander the Great. Hellenistic culture among the Jews of Palestine spread more quickly after Alexander's conquest, especially when the country was ruled by the Seleucid monarch Antiochus IV Epiphanes (second century B.C.), and later under certain Jewish Hasmonean and Herodian kings" (p.59).
A reference to Greek-speaking Jews is found clearly in the book of Acts. In Acts 6:1 certain early Christians in Jerusalem are spoken of as being "Hellenists." The King James Version says, "And in those days, when the number of the disciples was multiplied, there arose a murmuring of the Grecians (Hellenistai) against the Hebrews (Hebraioi), because their widows were neglected in the daily ministration" (Acts 6:1). Who were these Hellenists or "Greeks"? The term applies to Greek-speaking Jews, in whose synagogues Greek was spoken, and where undoubtedly the Septuagint Scriptures were commonly used. This is verified in Acts 9:29 where we read: "And he (Saul, whose name was later changed to Paul) spake boldly in the name of the Lord Jesus, and disputed against the Grecians . . ." The "Grecians" or "Hellenists" were the Greek-speaking Jews, who had their own synagogues, even in Jerusalem.
Says Fitzmyer:
    "Such Hellenistai may have spoken very little, if any, Hebrew or Aramaic. This is suggested by a reference in Philippians 3:5 where Paul stoutly refers to himself as 'a Hebrew of the Hebrews.' Paul also spoke Greek. Thus Hellinistai as C. F. D. Moule has suggested probably is the designation of those Jerusalem Jews or Jewish Christians who habitually spoke only Greek (and for that reason were more affected by Hellenistic culture), whereas Hebraioi designated those Greek-speaking Jews and Jewish Christians who also spoke a Semitic language, probably Aramaic, which they normally used" (ibid., p.60).
What about Jesus Christ, and the apostles? Did they, too, commonly speak Greek as a "second language"?
    "The answer is almost certainly yes. The more difficult question, however, is whether he taught in Greek. Are any of the sayings of Jesus that are preserved for us only in Greek nevertheless in the original language in which he uttered them?
    "That Aramaic was the language Jesus normally used for both conversation and teaching seems clear. Most New Testament scholars would agree with this. But did he also speak Greek? The evidence already recounted for the use of Greek in first-century Palestine provides the background for an answer to this question. But there are more specific indi- cations in the Gospels themselves.
    "All four Gospels depict Jesus conversing with Pontius Pilate, the Roman prefect of Judea, at the time of his trial (Mark 15;2-5; Matthew 27:11-14; Luke 23:3; John 18:33- 38). Even if we allow for obvious literary embellishment of these accounts, there can be little doubt that Jesus and Pilate did engage in some kind of conversation . . . In what language did Jesus and Pilate converse? There is no mention of an interpreter. Since there is little likelihood that Pilate, a Roman, would have been able to speak either Aramaic or Hebrew, the obvious answer is that JESUS SPOKE GREEK at his trial before Pilate" (p.61).
Similarly, when Jesus conversed with the Roman centurion, a commander of a troop of Roman soldiers, the centurion most likely did not speak Aramaic or Hebrew. It is most likely that Jesus conversed with him in Greek, the common language of the time throughout the Roman empire (see Matt.8:5-13; Luke 7:2-10; John 4:46-53). A royal official of Rome, in the service of Herod Antipas, a Gentile, would most likely spoken with Jesus in Greek.
In addition, we find that Jesus journeyed to the pagan area of Tyre and Sidon, where He spoke with a Syro-Phoenician woman. The Gospel of Mark identifies this woman as Hellenes, meaning a "Greek" (Mark 7:26). The probability is, therefore, that Jesus spoke to her in Greek.
Even more remarkable, however, is the account in John 12, where we are told: "And there were certain Greeks among them that came up to worship at the feast: The same came therefore to Philip, which was of Bethsaida of Galilee, and desired him, saying, Sir, we would see Jesus" (John 12:20-21). These men were Greeks, and most likely spoke Greek, which Philip evidently understood, having grown up in the region of Galilee, not the back-water region many have assumed, but "Galilee of the Gentiles" (Matt.4:15) -- a place of commerce and international trade, where Greek would have been the normal language of business.
Having grown up in Galilee, it is evident that Jesus and His disciples must have spoken Greek, whenever it suited their purpose to do so. Declares Fitzmyer:
    "Moreover, these specific instances in which Jesus apparently spoke Greek are consistent with his Galilean background. In Matthew 4;15, this area is referred to as 'Galilee of the Gentiles.' Growing up and living in this area, Jesus would have had to speak some Greek. Nazareth was a mere hour's walk to Sepphoris and in the vicinity of other cities of the Decapolis. Tiberias, on the Sea of Galilee, was built by Herod Antipas; the population there, too, was far more bilingual than in Jerusalem.
    "Coming from such an area, JESUS would NO DOUBT HAVE SHARED THIS DOUBLE LINGUISTIC HERITAGE. Reared in an area where many inhabitants were GREEK- SPEAKING GENTILES, Jesus, the 'carpenter' (tekon, Mark 6:3), like Joseph, his foster- father (Matthew 13:55), would have had to deal with them in GREEK. Jesus was not an illiterate peasant and did not come from the lowest stratum of Palestinian society; he was a skilled craftsman. He is said to have had a house in Capernaum (Mark 2:15). He would naturally have conducted business in Greek with gentiles in Nazareth and neighboring Sepphoris" (ibid.).
Did Jesus also, therefore, teach in Greek? Were many of His parables and saying actually uttered in the Greek language?
If the answer is yes, as A. W. Argyle says, "We may have direct access to the original utterances of our Lord and not only to a translation of them."
The Language of Jesus
In the time of Christ, three languages figured prominently in the lives of the people of Judaea -- the common language of Aramaic, the language of Hebrew, used in the synagogues, and the Greek language -- which was commonly spoken and understood throughout the Roman Empire.
Some Aramaic words and expressions are preserved in the Gospels, such as Talitha cum, which means, "Little girl, get up!" (Mark 5:41). Also, Abba ("Father"; Mark 14:36; Gal.4:6; Rom.8:15); Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani ("My God, my God, why have you forsaken me"; Mark 15:34); Cephas ("Peter"; John 1:42); Mammon ("Wealth"; Matt.6:24, RSV); Raca ("Fool"; Matt.5:22, RSV). In fact, we can be specific and say that Jesus spoke a Galilean version of "western Aramaic," which differed from that which was spoken in Jerusalem (Matt.26:73; compare Acts 2:7).
Jesus could also read and speak Hebrew. The discovery of the Dead Sea scrolls has proved that Hebrew was used quite extensively in certain circles, especially for religious purposes. Jesus stood up and read the Hebrew Scriptures in the synagogue of Nazareth (Luke 4:16-20), showing He could also read and speak Hebrew. Some Hebrew words are also preserved in the gospels, such as, Ephphatha ("Be opened"; Mark 7:34); Amen ("Amen": Matt.5:26; Mark 14:30, RSV).
Writes Robert H. Stein, in Jesus The Messiah: A Survey of the Life of Christ:
    "The third major language spoken in Palestine was Greek. The impact of Alexander the Great's conquests in the fourth century B.C. resulted in the Mediterranean's being a 'Greek sea' in Jesus' day. In the third century Jews in Egypt could no longer read the Scriptures in Hebrew, so they began to translated them into Greek. This famous translation became known as the Septuagint (LXX). Jesus, who was reared in 'Galilee, of the Gentiles,' lived only three or four miles from the thriving Greek city of Sepphoris. There may even have been times when he and his father worked in this rapidly grow- ing metropolitan city, which served as the capital city of Herod Antipas until A.D. 26, when he moved the capital to Tiberias" (Jesus the Messiah: A Survey of the Life of Christ, Robert H. Stein, InterVarsity Press,, 1996, p.87).
Stein further tells us that the existence of "Hellenists" in the early Church (Acts 6:1-6) implies that from the beginning of the Church, there were Greek speaking Jewish Christians in the Church. The term "Hellenists" suggests their language was Greek, rather than their cultural or philosophical outlook. Remember, these were Jewish Christians whose primary language was Greek -- they were not Greek philosophers or their followers, but followers of Christ Jesus.
Stein goes on to explain, further:
    "Two of Jesus' disciples were even known by their Greek names: Andrew and Philip. In addition, there are several incidents in Jesus' ministry when he spoke to people who knew neither Aramaic nor Hebrew. Thus unless a translator was present (though none is ever mentioned), their conversations probably took place in the Greek language. Probably Jesus spoke Greek during the following occasions: the visit to Tyre, Sidon and the Decapolis (Mark 7:31ff), the conversation with the Syro-Phoenician woman (Mark 7:24-30; compare especially 7?26) and the trial before Pontius Pilate (Mark 15:2-15; compare also Jesus' conversation with the 'Greeks' in John 12:20-36)" (p.87, emphasis all mine).
The fact that Jesus Christ and the disciples all knew and spoke Greek, as a "third language," in addition to Aramaic and Hebrew, is also indicated and supported by the fact that all the gospels and epistles of the New Testament are written and preserved in the Greek language.
Stop and think! It is very significant that no early Christian documents are extant in Aramaic! ALL the earliest New Testament documents and fragments are in Greek! Papias, a second-century bishop of Hierapolis in Asia Minor stated that Matthew had put together the "sayings" of Jesus in the Hebrew dialect, Aramaic. But no one has ever seen them. All we have are GREEK manuscripts, and as far back as we go, GREEK is the language of the New Testament! Strange, isn't it, that not one manuscript in Aramaic or Hebrew predates the Greek?
Earliest New Testament Fragments in GREEK!
Scholars have long denied the veracity of the New Testament Scriptures, claiming that the earliest gospels were not eye-witness accounts of Christ and His life, but were written some one hundred years afterward, or about the middle of the second century, and were based on hearsay, myth, fable, and oral stories which had been passed down. Thus many scholars have regarded the very words of Christ, as recorded in the gospels, as "suspect."
Astonishing as it may seem, however, bits of papyrus in an Oxford University library puts the lie to the cherished theories of unbelieving, skeptical scholars! Three scraps of text of the gospel of Matthew, inscribed in Greek, have traditionally been believed to have been written in the late second century. But German papyrus expert Carsten Thiede has published a paper arguing that these fragments kept at Oxford's Magdalen College very likely represent an actual EYE WITNESS ACCOUNT of the life of Jesus!
The London Times reported that the evidence on an early form of writing paper was a potentially "important breakthrough in biblical scholarship, on a level with the discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls in 1947" (Los Angeles Times, Dec.25, 1994, "Gospel Fragments in Britain May Be Contemporary Account of Life of Jesus Christ, p.A42).
Some scholars have questioned the accuracy of the New Testament as historical, believing that the earliest texts were written long after the actual events described. However, careful new analysis by Professor Thiede has dated the fragments to the middle of the first century, thereby indicating that they are evidence that the Matthew Gospel was written only a generation after the crucifixion, or even earlier! Says William Tuohy of the Los Angeles Times, "Parts of the New Testament may have been written by men who actually knew Christ, rather than authors recounting a 2nd-Century version of an oral tradition."
The Magdalen fragments have been at the Oxford college since 1901. Little work has been done on them since 1953 when they were last edited by biblical scholars. But earlier this year, Thiede visited Oxford and inspected the papyrus. He concluded,
    "The Magdalen fragment now appears to belong to a style of handwriting that was current in the 1st Century A.D., and that slowly petered out around the mid-1st Century. Even a hesitant approach to questions of dating would therefore seem to justify a date in the 1st Century, about 100 years earlier than previously thought."
The lines on the fragments are from Matthew 26 and include the oldest written reference to Mary Magdalene and the betrayal of Christ by Judas. This fragment, written soon after the death of Christ, in the first century, is written in the Greek language, putting in the trash compacter once and for all the notion that the apostles did not speak or write Greek!
This new discovery by Professor Carsten Thiede, a papyrus expert, will provoke controversy among scholars, if not even dismay and consternation on the part of disbelievers and skeptics. His discovery is strong evidence that the gospel accounts regarding the life of Jesus Christ are accurate, and reliable historical documents.
The Magdalene fragment from the Gospel of Matthew has been identified as coming from a document dated to the middle of the first century A.D. -- during the very lives of the apostles! This fragment is written in GREEK, and could even be a fragment from an original monograph written by the apostle Matthew himself! This amazing new discovery is powerful evidence, obviously, that the writer, evidently the apostle Matthew, was very familiar with the Greek language and was capable of writing intelligently in it.
Furthermore, it is interesting to note that some of the disciples of Christ had Greek names -- Andrew, Philip, Simon (a Grecized form of the Hebrew Sim on), Levi/Matthew, a tax collector. It is possible that many Greek terms preserved in the New Testament may be there because they were originally uttered in Greek. One such word is "Sanhedron," which comes from the Greek synedrion. It is of Greek, not Hebrew, derivation, and was the common term used for the Jewish high court.
A word often used by Jesus, "hypocrite," in describing the Pharisees and Sadducees, comes from the Greek word hypokrites, a compound word with the Greek preposition hypo for "under" and krites, meaning "judgment." This form is wholly lacking in Semitic languages. The word hypokrites basically means, "one who answers" (i.e., one who always has an answer, or excuse), but came to mean over time not only "expounder" or "interpreter," but "orator," "actor," stage actor, or one who spoke from behind a dramatic mask on stage. From this it came to mean "pretender," "dissembler." But this Greek word, so familiar in the denunciations of Christ, has no counterpart in Hebrew or Aramaic.
What Difference Does It Make?
What difference does it make, anyway, what language Jesus and His disciples spoke? The answer becomes clear when we realize that there are churches, sects and cults today which make a great issue over the subject of "holy names." These churches will not use ANY name for God or Christ in ANY language except what they call the original "Hebrew" names for God and the Messiah.
According to these people, it is a SIN to mention on one's lips the word Adonai in Hebrew, translated "Lord" in the Old Testament! According to them, the word "Adonai" is a name for Baal the sun-god, and so "Lord" is a title for Baal, the sun-god! It does not seem to matter to them that the Scriptures themselves use this very word repeatedly in reference to the True God of Israel! Similarly, they condemn the use of the Hebrew name El, Elohim, Eloah, and all its derivatives as being PAGAN terms, used of the pagan gods of antiquity. They condemn the use of such words, including any and all translations from them, such as "God," "Most High God," etc. Any titles used for pagan gods they forbid to be used of the True God! Yet the Scriptures themselves repeatedly refer to the true God as El, Elohim, Eloah, etc., in the Old Testament, which translates into English as "God" (Gen.1:1, etc.).
Of course, the fact that God preserved the entirely of the New Testament in the Greek language seems to give these people "fits." They claim Greek is another pagan language, and that such terms as Iesous translated "Jesus," and Theos translated "God" are also pagan names and must not be used. They claim that a vast, overriding "conspiracy" in the first century destroyed all the "missing" Hebrew original documents, and that the New Testament we have today is essentially a forgery -- at least where the names of God are involved!
Proof or evidence of this conspiracy? There is none. Does God Almighty have the power to preserve His name in whatever language He chooses? Of course He does! And it is patently obvious that He choose to preserve the New Testament Scriptures in Greek -- not Hebrew! The fact that Jesus and the apostles all spoke Greek is another nail in the coffin of these "language-worshippers" and conspiracy addicts.
We need not worry about ancient conspiracies to destroy the word, or "name" of God. As Christ said, "Thy word is truth" (John 17:17); "the Scripture cannot be broken" (John 10:35).
Peter wrote that the word of God "liveth and abideth for ever" (I Pet.1:23). The word of God, which He inspired to be preserved, is in all essential and crucial respects, inspired and correctly preserved, to all generations. As Paul wrote to Timothy, "ALL SCRIPTURE" -- and that includes the NAMES AND TITLES USED FOR GOD, in both the Old and New Testaments -- "IS GIVEN BY INSPIRATION OF GOD [Greek, "God-breathed"], and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for CORRECTION, for instruction in righteousness: that the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works" (II Tim.3:16).
Wouldn't it seem awfully strange that if God only intended all mankind to use only the Hebrew names of God and the Messiah, that He Himself divided all mankind into many language groups at the tower of Babel? Wouldn't it also seem strange that this same God, who created mankind, and later gave him different languages (Gen.11), required that in order to receive salvation one would have to know, and pronounce "correctly," the Hebrew name of God and Christ -- and that ONLY THE HEBREW PRONUNCIATION WOULD SAVE ANYBODY?
What kind of God would that be? Generations of man have come and gone, and even the Jews say today that they have forgotten exactly how to pronounce the YHVH or Tetragrammaton of the Old Testament name of God! "Jehovah" is obviously in error, yet many use that name today. "Yahweh" is the more recently "scholarly" pronunciation suggested by many; yet historical evidence indicates that is just an "approximation" of the divine name, and "Yahveh" would be closer to the truth.
Others claim "Yahuveh" is more accurate. And on and on the argument goes -- where it will stop, nobody knows! Some claim "Christ" is a pagan (Greek) term, and that "Jesus" comes from the Greek god "Zeus." Both claims are patently false. "Christ" is merely the English form of the Greek word Christos, which merely means "Anointed" (just as the Hebrew word Moshiach literally means "Messiah"). The name "Jesus" comes from the Greek Iesous, and means "Saviour," just as does the Hebrew original Yeshua.
The important thing in God's sight is not whether we pronounce the syllables and consonants of His name in some precise manner directed by heaven. But rather, whether we love Him with all our heart, mind and soul, and love our neighbor as ourselves. As Jesus Christ said: "For this is the (whole) law and the prophets."
If you would like to study this subject further, then write for our article, A New Look at the Divine Name.




Chapter Three --Was the New Testament Originally Written in Hebrew?
In what language was the New Testament originally written?
Greek? or Hebrew? or Aramaic? Does it make any difference?
Is our modern Greek New Testament a forgery and a fraud,
foisted upon an unsuspecting world by clever and devious religious
charlatans of the fourth and fifth centuries? Why is our modern
New Testament written in Greek, anyway?
Some today teach that that the Greek names for God, found in the New Testament, are PAGAN! And, furthermore, they claim that the names for God in the various languages around the world are all pagan and idolatrous! To them, only the original Hebrew name is right!
What is the truth? Is the name "Jesus" -- Iesou in the Greek language -- derived from the name of the pagan god "Zeus"? Is the Greek name for God -- Theos -- merely another name for "Baal" and pagan in origin? Is it wrong to use the Greek names for God?
These questions cut to the very heart of the controversy over the "divine names" sects and churches who insist that the names of God in all other languages are pagan in origin and blasphemous to use. Such sects claim that the New Testament itself was originally written in the Hebrew language, and that the Greek manuscripts are frauds -- deliberate attempts by apostates to corrupt the names of God and change the teachings of Christ.
What Is the Evidence?
Is there any evidence to back up such sensational claims? Is the New Testament, as we have it today, a trustworthy document -- or a compilation of lies and forgeries, foisted upon the world by Catholic theologians of the fourth and fifth centuries?
What is the truth? If the Greek New Testament is a fraud, then we need to know it! Our salvation could be at stake -- and certainly it is, if we have believed a "lie"!
The fact is, there is no Biblical evidence that God must be called only by His Hebrew names and titles. There is no Biblical or linguistic evidence that prohibits the use of English names and titles for God.
If Almighty God only wanted us to use the HEBREW names for God, then we would expect that the writers of the New Testament would have inserted the Hebrew names for God whenever they mentioned Him! But they do not do so. Instead, throughout the New Testament they use the Greek forms of God's names and titles. They call God "Theos" instead of "Elohim."
The Evidence of Preservation Itself
Furthermore, even if some parts of the New Testament were written in Hebrew (such as the gospel of Matthew), as some suggest, isn't it amazing that God did not preserve those manuscripts -- instead He chose to preserve His New Testament Scriptures in the GREEK LANGUAGE, with the Greek forms of His name and titles!
Not one book of the New Testament has been preserved in Hebrew -- only in Greek. This is prima facie evidence that one language is not necessarily any "holier" than another, and that it is NOT wrong to use the forms of God's name as they would translate from the Hebrew or Greek.
Those who insist on using only the Hebrew names of God are straining at a gnat, and swallowing a camel! Nowhere does the Bible tell us that it is wrong to use the names of God in Aramaic, Greek, or any other language of the earth.
Since Almighty God has preserved the New Testament Scriptures in the Greek language, and many if not all of them were originally written in Greek, it is obvious that God Himself INSPIRED the usage of Greek to write and to maintain and preserve HIS HOLY WORD! Therefore, it is self-evident that the Greek forms of God's names and titles are perfectly all right for us to use, and translations of those forms and names into other languages, including English.
Luke the Beloved Physician
Luke the physician, who wrote the gospel of Luke and the book of Acts, was a highly trained physician who evidently was trained in his craft at Alexandria, Egypt. He addresses his gospel to the "most excellent Theophilus" (Luke 1:3), as he does also the book of Acts (Acts 1:1). Theophilus, from his name, was undoubtedly a Greek. The gospel of Luke and book of Acts were undoubtedly written by Luke in the Greek language.
Says the New Bible Dictionary: "It is generally admitted that Luke is the most literary author of the New Testament. His prologue proves that he was able to write in irreproachable, pure, literary Greek" (p.758). He was a Gentile. Says this same source, "From the literary style of Luke and Acts, and from the character of the contents of the books, it is clear that Luke was a well-educated Greek."
This evidence, of course, provides further proof that God does not take exception to the Greek forms of His name and titles. He inspired Luke to use the Greek language! And Luke was writing primarily for the Greek-speaking, Gentile world!
The apostle Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles. He spoke Greek fluently, and used it continually as he went throughout the Roman world preaching the gospel. Only when he was in Judea, and Jerusalem, did he generally use Hebrew (Acts 22:2). In writing his epistles to the churches throughout the region -- Rome, Corinth, Ephesus, Galatia, Philippi -- undoubtedly he also wrote in the Greek language. There is no evidence whatsoever that he originally used Hebrew names for God instead of the Greek forms, as they have been preserved through the centuries.
The Language of the New Testament
Did God Himself inspire the New Testament to be written and preserved in the Greek language, instead of Hebrew? What was the original language of the books of the New Testament?
The History of the Church from Christ to Constantine, by Eusebius, provides us with greater insight into the writing of the New Testament. Eusebius records that after Peter first went to Rome, and preached the gospel there, that the people were so enthusiastic that they wanted a written record of the gospel he preached. Writes Eusebius:
    "So brightly shone the light of true religion on the minds of Peter's hearers that, not satisfied with a single hearing or with the oral teaching of the divine message, they resorted to appeals of every kind to induce Mark (whose gospel we have), as he was a follower of Peter, to leave them in WRITING a summary of the instruction they had received by word of mouth, nor did they let him go until they had persuaded him, and thus became responsible for the writing of what is known as the Gospel according to Mark" (p.88).
This occurred in Rome. The request was made by Romans. The language Mark wrote in was Greek, which was commonly understood by all learned Romans, as Greek was the universal language of that time.
Eusebius tells us more about the original writing of the gospels. "Matthew," he records, "had begun by preaching to Hebrews; and when he made up his mind to go to others too, he committed his own gospel tow riting IN HIS NATIVE TONGUE, so that for those with whom he was no longer present the gap left by his departure was filled by what he wrote. And when Mark and Luke had published their gospels, John, we are told, who hitherto had relied entirely on the spoken word, finally took to writing for the following reason.The three gospels already written were in general circulation and copies had come into John's hands. He welcomed them, we are told, and confirmed their accuracy, but remarked that the narrative only lacked the story of what Christ had done first of all at the beginning of His mission" (p.132).
It is obvious that Mark, Luke and John, therefore, were written in Greek. John's headquarters, at this time, was undoubtedly Ephesus, where he finally died. Ephesus was in the middle of a Greek-speaking region, and John was writing for the entire Church, not just the Jews at Jerusalem.
Eusebius quotes Irenaeus also concerning the writing of the gospels, as follows:
    "Matthew published a written gospel for the Hebrews in their Rome and founding the church there. After their passing, Mark also, the disciple and INTERPRETER of Peter, transmitted to us in writing the things preached by Peter. Luke, the follower of Paul, set down in a book the gospel preached by him. Lastly, John, the disciple of the Lord, who had leant back on His breast, once more set forth the gospel, while residing at Ephesus in Asia" (p.211).
Obviously these three gospels were written in Greek, as their audience was Greek-speaking, and only the gospel of Matthew is singled out as having been written in Hebrew!
Irenaeus is also quoted concerning the writing of the book of Revelation, and the mysterious number "666," the number of the Antichrist. Irenaeus writes:
    "Such then is the case: this number is found in all good and early copies and confirmed by the very people who was John face to face, and reason teaches us that the number of the Beast's name is shown according to GREEK numerical usage by the letters in it. . . ." (p.211).
Again, here is further evidence that even the book of Revelation was originally written in Greek.
The Books and the Parchments
The distinguished scholar F. F. Bruce, in The Books and the Parchments, tells us that Greek was undoubtedly the language of the New Testament. He asserts, "Although Aramaci appears to have been the common language of our Lord and of the earliest Christians, it is not the language of the New Testament. . . .
    "The language most appropriate for the propagation of this message would naturally be one that was most widely known throughout all the nations, and this language lay ready to hand. It was the Greek language, which, at the time when the gospel began to be proclaimed among all the nations, was a THOROUGHLY INTERNATIONAL LANGUAGE, spoken not only around the Aegean shores but all over the Eastern Mediterranean and in other areas too. Greek was no strange tongue to the apostolic church even in the days when it was confined to Jerusalem, for the membership of the primitive Jerusalem church included Greek-speaking Jews as well as Aramaic-speaking Jews. These Greek-speaking Jewish Christians (or Hellenists) are mentioned in Acts 6:1, where we read that they complained of the unequal attention paid to the widows of their group by contrast with those of the Hebrews or Aramaic-speaking Jews. To remedy this situation seven men were appointed to take charge of it, and it is noteworthy that (to judge by their names) all seven were Greek-speaking" (p.49).
Bruce discusses the differences in style of writing in the Greek language that are found in the New Testament books. He declares:
    "Paul, we may say, comes roughly half-way between the vernacular and more literary styles. The Epistle to the Hebrews and the First Epistle of Peter are true literary works, and much of their vocabulary is to be understood by the aid of a classical lexicon rather than one which draws upon non-literary sources. The Gospels contain more really vernacular Greek, as we might expect, since they report so much conversation by ordinary people. This is true even of Luke's Gospel. Luke himself was master of a fine literary literary style, as appears from the first four verses of his Gospel, but in both Gospel and Acts he adapts his style to the characters and scenes that he portrays" (p.55-56).
All scholars of repute, today, admit that the original language of the New Testament was Greek, although the writers sometimes drew upon Hebraisms to be translated into the Greek.
Says the New Bible Dictionary: "The language in which the New Testament documents have been preserved is the 'common Greek' (koine),which was the lingua franca of the Near Eastern andMediterranean lands in Roman times" (p.713).
This same authoritative source adds the following information:
    "Having thus summarized the general characteristics of New Testament Greek, we may give a brief characterization of each individual author. Mark is written in the Greek of the common man. . . . Matthew and Luke each utilize the Markan text, but each corrects his solecisims, and prunes his style . . . Matthew's own style is less distinguished than that of Luke -- he writes a grammatical Greek, sober but cultivated, yet with some marked Septuagintalisms; Luke is capable of achieving momentarily great heights of style in the Attic tradition, but lacks the power to sustain these; he lapses at length back to the style of his sources or to a very humble koine. . . .
    "Paul writes a forceful Greek,with noticeable developments in style between his earliest andhis latest Epistles . . . . James and I Peter both show close acquaintance with classical style, although in the former some very 'Jewish' Greek may also be seen.The Johannine Epistles are closely similar to the Gospels in language. . . Jude and II Peter both display a highly tortuous an involved Greek. . . The Apo- calypse, as we have indicated, is sui generis in language and style: its vigour, power, and success, though a tour de force, cannot be denied" (p.715-716).
There is no evidence at all to suppose that the New Testament was originally written in anything but ancient Greek! Concludes the New Bible Dictionary, "In summary, we may state that the Greek of the New Testament is known to us today as a language 'understanded of the people,' and that it was used with varying degrees of stylistic attainment, but with one impetus and vigour, to express in these documents a message which at any rate for its preachers was continuous with that of the Old Testament Scriptures -- a message of a living God, concerned for man's right relation with Himself, providing of Himself the means of reconciliation."
Now consider this.
The evidence all shows that Almighty God INSPIRED Mark, Luke, John, Paul, and the rest of the writers of the New Testament -- even including Peter and James -- of having written their gospels and epistles IN GREEK! Only Matthew's gospel was apparently written first in Hebrew or Aramaic. The other New Testament writers, in using the Greek language, also used the GREEK FORMS of God's name, and the name of Jesus Christ, repeatedly and consistently! Clearly, therefore, God Himself does not disapprove of His name being translated into different human languages!
It is a spurious, specious argument to claim that the New Testament had to have been written in Hebrew, and had to contain only the Hebrew names for God. All the evidence of the manuscripts points otherwise.
Those who deny that the Old Testament faithfully preserves the knowledge of God's name, and who claim the New Testament was originally written in Hebrew, utilizing the Hebrew names for God, have no evidence or proof whatsoever to back up their claims. Should we believe them when they have no evidence, but only a "theory"? Should we take their speculations as "fact"? Of course not!
The apostle Paul cautions true Christians, "PROVE ALL THINGS; hold fast that which is good" (I Thess.5;21). We must not allow men to wrap us around their little fingers, and make mincemeat of us, just because they sound convincing and positive in their writings and arguments. The truth is, they don't know what they are talking about. They don't have a leg to stand on. They have placed their personal theological beliefs before the record of history. They have denied the facts in order to keep their own cherished beliefs.
Those who claim that the original manuscripts were not properly preserved in the language in which they were written, seem to think that God Almighty is UNABLE or UNWILLING to faithfully preserve and protect HIS WORD from the corruption and perversion of men!
God is not prejudiced against the Greek language, or Russian, Italian, German, Chinese, Spanish, French, or English. But, as Peter declared: "Of a truth, I perceive that God is no respecter of persons: But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him" (Acts 10:34-35). Amen to that!

http://www.ntgreek.org/answers/nt_written_in_greek.htm

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https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_of_the_New_Testament


Language New Testament

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language_of_Jesus


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http://www.bbc.com/news/blogs-magazine-monitor-27587230


What language would Jesus have spoken?

Aramaic would have been his first language

Hebrew for scholarly questions

May have known some Greek 

 Greek is a little more likely. It was the lingua franca of the Roman Empire - used by the civilian administrators. 
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http://jesusisajew.org/YESHUA.php

 Yeshua ("Jesus") 

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https://www.tms.edu/m/tmsj20e.pdf

THE LANGUAGES SPOKEN BY JESUS

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http://www.utexas.edu/cola/centers/lrc/eieol/ntgol-0-X.html

New Testament Greek Online

Series Introduction


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https://carm.org/manuscript-evidence

Manuscript evidence for superior New Testament reliability


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http://www.goarch.org/ourfaith/ourfaith7068

The Bible: Its Original Languages and English Translations


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https://rsc.byu.edu/archived/selected-articles/jews-and-greeks-broader-context-writing-new-testament

Jews and Greeks: The Broader Context for Writing the New Testament



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http://www.biblica.com/en-us/bible/bible-faqs/in-what-language-was-the-bible-first-written/

The New Testament, however, was written in Greek. This seems strange, since you might think it would be either Hebrew or Aramaic. However, Greek was the language of scholarship during the years of the composition of the New Testament from 50 to 100 AD. The fact is that many Jews could not even read Hebrew anymore, and this disturbed the Jewish leaders a lot! So, around 300 BC a translation of the Old Testament from Hebrew into Greek was undertaken, and it was completed around 200 BC. Gradually this Greek translation of the Old Testament, called the Septuagint, was widely accepted and was even used in many synagogues. It also became a wonderful missionary tool for the early Christians, for now the Greeks could read God's Word in their own tongue.

So the New Testament authors wrote in Greek. They did not, however, use really high-class or classical Greek, but a very common and everyday type of Greek. For many years some scholars ridiculed the Greek of the New Testament because many of its words were strange to those who read the writings of the great Greek classical authors such as Plato and Aristotle. But later many records were uncovered of ordinary people, and amazingly there were the same common terms used in everyday speech! The ridicule dried up accordingly.

The earliest copies of parts of the Hebrew Old Testament were discovered in 1947. They are part of the famous Dead Sea Scrolls and actually date back to the first century BC. Even though they are at least 900 years older than any parts of the Bible we had before this, they are not the originals. They are copies. The originals have all been lost or destroyed. But we are not at all doubtful that we may not have the original text. Copying by scribes was done with great care in those days and because the text was regarded as sacred, the copyists were extremely painstaking. Today some 5000 hand-copied documents exist of all or part of the Bible, and they agree in 98% of the text! No other ancient writing has this amount of underlying support with such amazing agreement as to the text.

Yes, we do have what God wanted us to have! By way of translation, we now have His revelation in our own language and in 2300 other languages, too. Today we have the very Bible that comes to us from the three languages used in the original. Truly we can say, "God speaks my language, too!"


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http://library.duke.edu/rubenstein/scriptorium/papyrus/texts/manuscripts.html

Dating the Oldest New Testament Manuscripts

DUKE

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http://orvillejenkins.com/languages/aramaicprimacy.html

The original written documents would have been naturally written in the language of the audiences to whom they were originally written.  Thus Greek appears to be the logical medium for writing to Greco-Roman gatherings, which included Jews whose mother tongue was also Greek.  Why would Paul have used Aramaic when he could could write them in their native tongue or the common language between different language groups?  Why would he write in Aramaic to a multi-racial and multi-lingual congregation in a Greek town in a language of another Province in a language they did not understand?

Even the Jews in that area were Greek-speaking, though it is likely some could speak Aramaic, if they had maintained contacts with Jerusalem.  Paul is a Pharisee and studied in Jerusalem, so I would expect he knows both languages as native languages or primary tongue.  Perhaps he is one of those individuals we would call a native bilingual.

(Even Roman historian and writers of that era were writing in Greek instead of Latin.  Latin was developed as a medium in the later decades.  Check specialists for more details.)  These are just some of the problems I see facing the concept of Aramaic Primacy.  I have not seen such factors commented on by Aramaic Primacy advocates. 



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Google Images

Kaduri note

https://www.google.com/search?q=Kaduri+note&num=50&espv=2&rlz=1C5CHFA_enUS546US546&source=lnms&tbm=isch&sa=X&ved=0CAgQ_AUoAmoVChMI2ZiNodaIyQIVEN1jCh35IAnV&biw=1449&bih=1220#imgdii=j1QRDIvdndSJUM%3A%3Bj1QRDIvdndSJUM%3A%3B1s4QjWZm7xBONM%3A&imgrc=j1QRDIvdndSJUM%3A

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" greekS "

https://www.biblegateway.com/quicksearch/?quicksearch=greeks&qs_version=NKJV


" greek "
https://www.biblegateway.com/quicksearch/?quicksearch=greek&qs_version=NKJV


John 7:35

32 The Pharisees heard the crowd murmuring these things concerning Him, and the Pharisees and the chief priests sent officers to take Him. 

33 Then Jesus said to them, “I shall be with you a little while longer, and then I go to Him who sent Me. 

34 You will seek Me and not find Me, and where I am you cannot come.”

35 Then the Jews said among themselves, “Where does He intend to go that we shall not find Him? Does He intend to go to the Dispersion among the Greeks and teach the Greeks? 

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John+7&version=NKJV;KJV



John 12:20

20 Now there were certain Greeks among those who came up to worship at the feast. 

21 Then they came to Philip, who was from Bethsaida of Galilee, and asked him, saying, “Sir, we wish to see Jesus.”

22 Philip came and told Andrew, and in turn Andrew and Philip told Jesus.


https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John+12&version=NKJV;KJV




Acts 14:1

[ Paul ]

Now it happened in Iconium that they went together to the synagogue of the Jews, and so spoke that a great multitude both of the Jews and of the Greeks believed.

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+14&version=NKJV;KJV


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Acts 17:4

1 Now when they had passed through Amphipolis and Apollonia, they came to Thessalonica, where there was a synagogue of the Jews. 

2 Then Paul, as his custom was, went in to them, and for three Sabbaths reasoned with them from the Scriptures, 

3 explaining and demonstrating that the Christ had to suffer and rise again from the dead, and saying, “This Jesus whom I preach to you is the Christ.” 

4 And some of them were persuaded; and a great multitude of the devout Greeks, and not a few of the leading women, joined Paul and Silas.

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+17&version=NKJV;KJV


Acts 17:12

10 Then the brethren immediately sent Paul and Silas away by night to Berea. When they arrived, they went into the synagogue of the Jews. 

11 These were more fair-minded than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness, and searched the Scriptures daily to find out whether these things were so. 

12 Therefore many of them believed, and also not a few of the Greeks, prominent women as well as men.


https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+17&version=NKJV;KJV



Acts 18:4

1 After these things Paul departed from Athens and went to Corinth. 

2 And he found a certain Jew named Aquila, born in Pontus, who had recently come from Italy with his wife Priscilla (because Claudius had commanded all the Jews to depart from Rome); and he came to them. 

3 So, because he was of the same trade, he stayed with them and worked; for by occupation they were tentmakers. 

4 And he reasoned in the synagogue every Sabbath, and persuaded both Jews and Greeks.

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+18&version=NKJV;KJV



Acts 19:10

[ Paul ]

8 And he went into the synagogue and spoke boldly for three months, reasoning and persuading concerning the things of the kingdom of God. 

9 But when some were hardened and did not believe, but spoke evil of the Way before the multitude, he departed from them and withdrew the disciples, reasoning daily in the school of Tyrannus. 

10 And this continued for two years, so that all who dwelt in Asia heard the word of the Lord Jesus, both Jews and Greeks.

https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+19&version=NKJV;KJV


Acts 19:17

11 Now God worked unusual miracles by the hands of Paul, 

12 so that even handkerchiefs or aprons were brought from his body to the sick, and the diseases left them and the evil spirits went out of them. 

13 Then some of the itinerant Jewish exorcists took it upon themselves to call the name of the Lord Jesus over those who had evil spirits, saying, “We exorcise you by the Jesus whom Paul preaches.” 

14 Also there were seven sons of Sceva, a Jewish chief priest, who did so.

15 And the evil spirit answered and said, “Jesus I know, and Paul I know; but who are you?”

16 Then the man in whom the evil spirit was leaped on them, overpowered them, and prevailed against them, so that they fled out of that house naked and wounded. 

17 This became known both to all Jews and Greeks dwelling in Ephesus; and fear fell on them all, and the name of the Lord Jesus was magnified. 


https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+19&version=NKJV;KJV






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